A&P 2 Final Exam Review Question


The Nervous System


The Circulatory System

(12) Blood Vessle Anatomy

331)  What is the purpose of an anastamosis in your body?

A ____     allows small blood vessels to expand during emergencies

B ____     adds a protective membrane to superficial arteries

C ____     increases a vessles ability to heal if damaged

D ____     provide an alternate way for blood to get to a body part.

332)  ___________ have the largest diameter lumen (hollow space) of any of the vessles.

A ____     Arterioles

B ____     Veins

C ____     Capillaries

D ____     venules

333)  ___________ have valves that help bring blood back uphill from your lower body.

A ____     Arterioles

B ____     Veins

C ____     Capillaries

D ____     Venules

334)  The walls of ___________ are made of only Simple squamous tissue.

A ____     Arterioles

B ____     Veins

C ____     Capillaries

D ____     Venules

335)  __________ have muscular sphincters that help control where blood flows.

A ____     Arterioles

B ____     Veins

C ____     Capillaries

D ____     Venules

336)  Which type of blood vessel is only found close to the heart?

A ____     Veins

B ____     artery

C ____     arteriole

D ____     capillary

337)  This is a CheckBoxes question. It can have MORE THAN 1 answer. Check the box of ALL that apply.

Which of the following types of blood vessels have the Tunica Intima as one of their layers?

A ____     Elastic Arteries

B ____     Arterioles

C ____     Capillaries

D ____     Veins

338)  This is a CheckBoxes question. It can have MORE THAN 1 answer. Check the box of ALL that apply.

Which of the following types of blood vessels have the Tunica Media as one of their layers?

A ____     Muscular Arteries

B ____     Arterioles

C ____     Capillaries

D ____     Venules

339)  This is a CheckBoxes question. It can have MORE THAN 1 answer. Check the box of ALL that apply.

Which of the following types of blood vessels have the Tunica Adventitia as one of their layers?

A ____     Venules

B ____     Arterioles

C ____     Capillaries

D ____     Veins

340)  This is a CheckBoxes question. It can have MORE THAN 1 answer. Check the box of ALL that apply.

Which of the following types of blood vessels have no muscle tissue in their walls?

A ____     Elastic Arteries

B ____     Arterioles

C ____     Capillaries

D ____     Veins

341)  This is a CheckBoxes question. It can have MORE THAN 1 answer. Check the box of ALL that apply.

Which of the following types of blood vessels carry only oxygenated blood?

A ____     Arteries

B ____     Arterioles

C ____     Capillaries

D ____     Veins

342)  This is a CheckBoxes question. It can have MORE THAN 1 answer. Check the box of ALL that apply.

Which of the following types of blood vessels allow oxygen and nutrients into surrounding tissues?

A ____     Elastic Arteries

B ____     Arterioles

C ____     Capillaries

D ____     Veins

343)  This is a CheckBoxes question. It can have MORE THAN 1 answer. Check the box of ALL that apply.

Which of the following types of blood vessels carry blood that has already been through a capillary bed?

A ____     Venules

B ____     Arterioles

C ____     Muscular Arteries

D ____     Veins

344)  This is a CheckBoxes question. It can have MORE THAN 1 answer. Check the box of ALL that apply.

Which of the following types of blood vessels DO have muscle tissue in their walls?

A ____     Elastic Arteries

B ____     Arterioles

C ____     Capillaries

D ____     Veins

345)  Which part of the circulatory system circulates a fluid that is not blood?

A ____     Pulmonary

B ____     lymphatic

C ____     Hepatic / portal

346)  Which blood vessles allow the exchange of materials between the blood and tissues?

A ____     lymphatic vessles

B ____     Arteries

C ____     veins

D ____     capillaries

347)  What is the term that refers to an artery getting larger in diameter to allow more blood to flow?

A ____     volumization

B ____     dialation

C ____     confluation

D ____     constriction

348)  Which type of vessel carries a small volume of blood under very low pressure?

A ____     Vein

B ____     venule

C ____     arteriole

D ____     capillary


(10) Blood Vessels

125

 

123

 

122

 

121

 

127 from lungs

 

126

 

128 among intestines

 

124

 

Human Arterial System

 
           


120

 

119

 



Be able to identify any of these blood vessles:


Arteries:

A. Common Carotid,       B. Subclavian,  C. Axillary,       D. Brachial,        E. Coronary,   

            ab. Aortic Arch,        ac. Coeliac,          

ad. Superior mesenteric,           ae. Inferior mesenteric,            bc.Renal,                          bd.   Common Iliac,   be. External Iliac, cd. Internal iliac,          ce.  Femoral                 


Veins:

A. External Jugular,      B.Subclavian,   C. Axillary,       D. Brachial,      

E. Superior vena cava,

ab. Inferior vena cava  ,ac.  Renal,       

ad. Common Iliac,          ae. External Iliac,

bc. Internal iliac,   bd. Femoral,           

be.  Portal,        cd. Pulmonary  

cd. Mesenteric              de. Hepatic



349)  Mitral valve prolapse is a disorder of the heart in which the mitral valve

A ____     does not open all the way

B ____     is missing as a result of abnormal development

C ____     leaks during ventricular relaxation

D ____     leaks during ventricular contraction

350)  The term used to describe an abnormally slow heart rate

A ____     tachycardia

B ____     bradycardia

C ____     fibrillation

D ____     cardioversion

(8) Heart Structures

351)  Identify the Left Atrioventricular Valve.

352)  Identify the Left Pulmonary Veins.

353)  Identify the Right Pulmonary Veins.

354)  Identify the Left Pulmonary Artery.

355)  Identify the Right Pulmonary Artery.

356)  Identify the Brachiocephalic Artery.

357)  Identify the Subclavian Artery.

358)  Identify the Right Atrioventricular Valve.

359)  Identify the Aortic Semilunar Valve.

360)  Identify the Pulmonary Semilunar Valve.

361)  Identify the Left Atrium.

362)  Identify the Right Atrium.

363)  Identify the Left Ventricle.

364)  Identify the Right Ventricle.

365)  Identify the Aortic Arch.

366)  Identify the Superior Vena Cava.

367)  Identify the Pulmonary Trunk.


368)  What is the approximate size of your heart?

A ____     The size of your foot

B ____     The size of Two Fists

C ____     The Size of your head

D ____     the size of your fist

Pericardium

369)  The loose-fitting, tough sac around the heart is the

A ____     parietal pericardium

B ____     visceral pericardium

C ____     fiberous pericardium

D ____     endocardium

370)  Which of the following is not a branch of the aorta?

A ____     the right coronary artery

B ____     the pulmonary artery

C ____     the brachiocephalic artery

D ____     the left subclavian artery

371)  The general name for the loose fitting sac around the heart is the

A ____     myocardium

B ____     pericardium

C ____     epicardium

D ____     endocardium

372)  Type the number of valves found in your heart (use digits (10), not words (ten))

_________________________    

(5) Intrinsic (Cardiac) Conduction System

373)  In an EKG pattern, the P-Q interval indicates how long it takes for the cardiac impulse to travel from the

A ____     S-A node to the AV node

B ____     S-A node to the atrial muscle fibers

C ____     S-A node to the ventricular muscle fibers

D ____     A-V node to the atrial muscle fibers

374)  Which of the following is considered a secondary pacemaker for the heart?

A ____     A-V node

B ____     Purkinje fibers

C ____     both A-V node and Purkinje fibers

D ____     neither A-V node nor Purkinje fibers

375)  Which chambers of the heart does the A-V node send impulses directly to?

A ____     Atria only

B ____     Atria and Ventricles

C ____     Ventricles only

D ____     None of these

376)  What is happening during the T wave?

A ____     Atria contract

B ____     Ventricles contract

C ____     Ventricles recharge

D ____     Heart does no activities at all

377)  Which of the following is considered a secondary pacemaker for the heart?

A ____     A-V node

B ____     Purkinje fibers

C ____     both A-V node and Purkinje fibers

D ____     neither A-V node nor Purkinje fibers

378)  The primary pacemaker of the heart is the

A ____     Purkinje fibers

B ____     bundle of His

C ____     sinoatrial node

D ____     atrioventricular node

379)  Which chambers of the heart does the A-V node send impulses directly to?

A ____     Atria only

B ____     Atria and Ventricles

C ____     Ventricles only

D ____     None of these

380)  What chambers are contracted by the R wave?

A ____     Atria only

B ____     Atria and Ventricles

C ____     Ventricles only

D ____     None of these

381)  This is a Point and Click question. Identify the Media button.

Identify the QRS wave.

382)  This is a Point and Click question. Identify the Media button.

Identify the T wave.

383)  This is a Point and Click question. Identify the Media button.

Identify the P wave.

384)  In an EKG pattern, the P-Q interval indicates how long it takes for the cardiac impulse to travel from the

A ____     S-A node to the AV node

B ____     S-A node to the atrial muscle fibers

C ____     S-A node to the ventricular muscle fibers

D ____     A-V node to the atrial muscle fibers

385)  This is a Point and Click question. Identify the Media button.

Identify the line that represents the P - R interval.

386)  This is a Point and Click question. Identify the Media button.

Identify the line that represents the QRT interval.

387)  This is a Point and Click question. Identify the Media button.

Identify the line that represents the P - R interval.

388)  The correct sequence of parts that function to carry the electrical impulses is

A ____     Brain, S-A node, A-V node

B ____     Brain, A-V node, S-A node

C ____     Brain, A-V node,  S-A node

D ____     S-A node, brain,  A-V bundle

389)  In an EKG pattern, the P wave is related to

A ____     contraction of atrial muscle fibers

B ____     relaxation of ventricular muscle fibers

C ____     relaxation of atrial muscle fibers

D ____     contraction of ventricular muscle fibers

390)  In an EKG pattern, the T wave is caused by

A ____     recharging of atrial muscle fibers

B ____     recharging of ventricular muscle fibers

C ____     contraction of atrial muscle fibers

D ____     contraction of ventricular muscle fibers

391)  In an EKG pattern, the P-Q interval indicates how long it takes for the cardiac impulse to travel from the

A ____     A-V node to the ventricular muscle fibers

B ____     S-A node to the atrial muscle fibers

C ____     S-A node to the ventricular muscle fibers

D ____     A-V node to the atrial muscle fibers

392)  Which of the following might serve as a secondary pacemaker for the heart?

A ____     A-V node

B ____     Purkinje fibers

C ____     both A-V node and Purkinje fibers

D ____     neither A-V node nor Purkinje fibers

393)  The normal pacemaker of the heart is the

A ____     Purkinje fibers

B ____     bundle of His

C ____     sinoatrial node

D ____     atrioventricular node

394)  What part of the cardiac conduction system controls the atria?

A ____     SL Node

B ____     AV node

C ____     SA Node

D ____     EIEIO Node

395)  Which chambers of the heart does the A-V node send impulses directly to?

A ____     Atria only

B ____     Atria and Ventricles

C ____     Ventricles only

D ____     None of these

396)  What chambers are contracted by the R wave?

A ____     Atria only

B ____     Atria and Ventricles

C ____     Ventricles only

D ____     None of these

397)  What is happening during the T wave?

A ____     Atria contract

B ____     Ventricles contract

C ____     AV node recharges

D ____     Heart does no activity

398)  Impulses carried to the heart by means of the parasympathetic vagus nerve cause

A ____     the heart rate to increase

B ____     the heart rate to decrease

C ____     the BP to increase

D ____     none of these

(5) Cardiac Physiology

399)  Which of the following represents the correct sequence of parts through which blood moves in passing from the vena cava to the lungs?

A ____     right atrium, pulmonary valve, right ventricle, Rt AV valve

B ____     right atrium, Rt AV valve, right ventricle, pulmonary SL valve

C ____     tricuspid valve, right atrium, pulmonary SL valve, right ventricle

D ____     pulmonary valve, right atrium, Rt AV valve, right ventricle

400)  When the ventricular walls contract,

A ____     the Right AV valve opens and the Left AV valve closes

B ____     the Left AV valve opens and the Right AV valve closes

C ____     the Right AV and Left AV valves close

D ____     the Right AV and Left AV valves open

401)  The blood pressure in the arteries is greatest during

A ____     atrial systole

B ____     ventricular systole

C ____     ventricular diastole

D ____     atrial diastole

402)  Which of the following actions would most likely result in a drop in blood pressure?

A ____     vasodialation

B ____     increased viscosity

C ____     physical exertion

D ____     vasoconstriction

403)  The work of the heart moves the blood primarily by:

A ____     friction

B ____     peripheral resistance

C ____     anastamoses

D ____     pressure

404)  Cardiac muscle cells do not need any instructions from the brain to cause each beat. This is called:

A ____     Involuntary

B ____     spontaneous

C ____     Synchronized

D ____     Independent

405)  The name which describes your heart in a state of rest between contractions is:

A ____     diastole

B ____     systern

C ____     diatomaceous

D ____     systole

406)  Systolic blood pressure is caused by

A ____     atrial contraction

B ____     ventricular contraction

C ____     atrial relaxation

D ____     ventricular relaxation


(10) Circulatory Physiology

407)  Which of the following actions would most likely result in a drop in blood pressure?

A ____     vasodialation

B ____     increased viscosity

C ____     physical exertion

D ____     vasoconstriction

408)  Which of the following is not a normal result of training for endurance-type exercise?

A ____     decrease in resting heart rate

B ____     increase in stroke volume

C ____     increase in resting heart rate

D ____     Strengthening of myocardium (heart muscle)

409)  The right atrium receives blood directly from

A ____     the superior vena cava and inferior vena cava only

B ____     the superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, and pulmonary veins

C ____     the pulmonary and coronary veins only

D ____     The right ventricle only

410)  Cardiac muscle tissue is:

A ____     Voluntary  and spontaneous

B ____     involuntary   and spontaneous

C ____     synchronized and  voluntary

411)  Cardiac muscle tissue never fatigues because of:

A ____     Its large blood supply

B ____     Its large number of ribosomes

C ____     the brain limiting your exertion

412)  The name which describes your heart in a state of contraction is:

A ____     diastole

B ____     systern

C ____     diatomaceous

D ____     systole

413)  Cardiac muscle tissue is:

A ____     Voluntary  

B ____     involuntary  

C ____     immobile

414)  When a person's pulse is taken by palpation near the thumb on the wrist, what artery is being felt?

A ____     The popliteal artery

B ____     the brachial artery

C ____     the ulnar artery

D ____     the radial artery

415)  Which of the following is not a normal response to physical exercise?

A ____     increased blood flow to the heart muscle

B ____     increased blood flow to the skin

C ____     increased blood flow to the skeletal muscle

D ____     increased blood flow to the abdominal organs

416)  Which of the following is not a normal result of training for endurance-type exercise?

A ____     decrease in resting heart rate

B ____     increase in stroke volume

C ____     increase in resting heart rate

D ____     Strengthening of myocardium (heart muscle)

417)  Name one function of the lymphatic system.

A ____     Transport Oxygen

B ____     Help with immunity

C ____     Internal Lubrication

D ____     Lactation (milk production)

418)  Which of the following supplies blood to the lungs?

A ____     pulmonary arteries

B ____     phrenic arteries

C ____     the superior mesenteric artery

D ____     lumbar arteries

419)  When a person's pulse is taken by  near the thumb on the wrist, what artery is being felt?

A ____     the corodit artery

B ____     the brachial artery

C ____     the ulnar artery

D ____     the radial artery

420)  Which part of the circulatory system circulates a fluid that is not blood?

A ____     Pulmonary

B ____     lymphatic

C ____     Hepatic/portal

421)  Which blood vessles allow the exchange of materials between the blood and tissues?

A ____     lymphatic vessles

B ____     Arteries

C ____     veins

D ____     capillaries

422)  What is the term that refers to an artery getting larger in diameter to allow more blood to flow?

A ____     volumization

B ____     dialation

C ____     confluation

D ____     constriction

423)  Sounds from the heart that are audible with a stethoscope are caused by

A ____     The contraction of the atria

B ____     Opening of the valves

C ____     closing of the valves

D ____     contracton of the ventricles

424)  Arterial systolic pressure is caused by

A ____     atrial contraction

B ____     ventricular contraction

C ____     atrial relaxation

D ____     ventricular relaxation

425)  Which of the following is not a normal result of training for endurance-type exercise?

A ____     enlargement of the heart

B ____     increase in stroke volume

C ____     increase in resting heart rate

D ____     decrease in resting heart rate


(4) Immunity

Identify a Monocyte.

427)  Identify a Bacteria.

428)  Identify the only cell that can identify AND kill an antigen.

429)  Identify a B cell that has no specific instructions yet.

430)  Identify a B cell that has already been given specific instructions.

431)  Identify a Plasma Cell.

432)  Identify an Antibody.

433)  Identify a Helper T Cell.

434)  Identify the type of cell that will eventually become a memory cell.

435)  Identify a cell that can identify an antigen but cannot do anything to harm it.

436)  Identify a cell that can be found only in the blood or tissues, but not in the thymus.

437)  Identify something that makes pus.

438)  Identify something that is only disigned to combat one specific antigen but seldom actually kills it.

439)  Identify the only thing capable of getting a Killer T cells attention.

440)  Identify something that is reporting an invasion so that it can get help to fight it.

441)  This is an Ordering question. Identify the answers in the order that they occur so that the correct numbers appear in the boxes.

Put these in the order that they happen.

A ____     B cells remember that antigen for the future.

B ____     Helper T cells are shown bacterial proteins.

C ____     Plasma cells begin producing antibodies.

D ____     Antibodies bind to antigen.

442)  This is an Ordering question. Identify the answers in the order that they occur so that the correct numbers appear in the boxes.

Put these in the order that they happen.

A ____     Monocytes die trying to eat too many antigens.

B ____     One particular style of B cell recieves a recipe for producing antibodies.

C ____     Two days have passed.

D ____     Antigens are being destroyed in large numbers.

443)  This is an Ordering question. Identify the answers in the order that they occur so that the correct numbers appear in the boxes.

Put these in the order that they happen.

A ____     Monocytes notice an antigen.

B ____     Plasma cells enter blood and begin making antibodies.

C ____     Killer T cells destroy the antigen.

D ____     Bacterial Proteins are delivered to the thymus.

444)  This is an Ordering question. Identify the answers in the order that they occur so that the correct numbers appear in the boxes.

Put these in the order that they happen.

A ____     Monocytes wear antigen proteins.

B ____     Plasma cells stop antibody production and begin dying off.

C ____     Antigen proteins are delivered to the thymus.

D ____     Plasma cells leave the thymus.

(5) Blood Type and Transfusions

445)  This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.

Which tube indicates if the person has a + or a - blood type?

446)  This is a CheckBoxes question. There can be more than 1 right answer. Check the box for every correct answer.

Click the media button.

Which proteins does this person have on thier blood cells?

A ____     A

B ____     B

C ____     rh

D ____     O

E ____     None of these

447)  This is a CheckBoxes question. There can be more than 1 right answer. Check the box for every correct answer.

Click the media button.

Which proteins does this person have on thier blood cells?

A ____     A

B ____     B

C ____     rh

D ____     O

E ____     None of these

448)  This is a CheckBoxes question. There can be more than 1 right answer. Check the box for every correct answer.

Click the media button.

Which proteins does this person have on thier blood cells?

A ____     A

B ____     B

C ____     rh

D ____     O

E ____     None of these

449)  This is a CheckBoxes question. There can be more than 1 right answer. Check the box for every correct answer.

Click the media button.

Which proteins does this person have on thier blood cells?

A ____     A

B ____     B

C ____     rh

D ____     O

E ____     None of these

450)  This is a CheckBoxes question. There can be more than one correct answer. Check the box for all correct answers.

Click the Media button.

Check all of the types of blood this person can get.

A ____     A+

B ____     A-

C ____     B+

D ____     B-

E ____     AB+

F ____     AB-

G ____     O+

H ____     O-

451)  This is a CheckBoxes question. There can be more than one correct answer. Check the box for all correct answers.

Click the Media button.

Check all of the types of blood this person can get.

A ____     A+

B ____     A-

C ____     B+

D ____     B-

E ____     AB+

F ____     AB-

G ____     O+

H ____     O-

452)  This is a CheckBoxes question. There can be more than one correct answer. Check the box for all correct answers.

Click the Media button.

Check all of the types of blood this person can get.

A ____     A+

B ____     A-

C ____     B+

D ____     B-

E ____     AB+

F ____     AB-

G ____     O+

H ____     O-

453)  This is a CheckBoxes question. There can be more than one correct answer. Check the box for all correct answers.

Click the Media button.

Check all of the types of blood this person can get.

A ____     A+

B ____     A-

C ____     B+

D ____     B-

E ____     AB+

F ____     AB-

G ____     O+

H ____     O-

454)  This is a CheckBoxes question. There can be more than one correct answer. Check the box for all correct answers.

Check all of the types of blood than an AB+ person can get.

A ____     A+

B ____     A-

C ____     B+

D ____     B-

E ____     AB+

F ____     AB-

G ____     O+

H ____     O-

455)  This is a CheckBoxes question. There can be more than one correct answer. Check the box for all correct answers.

Check all of the types of blood than an B+ person can get.

A ____     A+

B ____     A-

C ____     B+

D ____     B-

E ____     AB+

F ____     AB-

G ____     O+

H ____     O-

456)  This is a CheckBoxes question. There can be more than one correct answer. Check the box for all correct answers.

Check all of the types of blood than an A+ person can get.

A ____     A+

B ____     A-

C ____     B+

D ____     B-

E ____     AB+

F ____     AB-

G ____     O+

H ____     O-

457)  This is a CheckBoxes question. There can be more than one correct answer. Check the box for all correct answers.

Check all of the types of blood than an O- person can get.

A ____     A+

B ____     A-

C ____     B+

D ____     B-

E ____     AB+

F ____     AB-

G ____     O+

H ____     O-

458)  This is a CheckBoxes question. There can be more than one correct answer. Check the box for all correct answers.

Check all of the types of blood than an AB+ person can get.

A ____     A+

B ____     A-

C ____     B+

D ____     B-

E ____     AB+

F ____     AB-

G ____     O+

H ____     O-


The Digestive System

(6) Enzymes

459)  what is the end product of the digestion done by salvivary amylase?

A ____     protiens

B ____     casiene

C ____     disacchardes

D ____     starch

460)  This is a CheckBoxes question. There can be more than one answer.

Check all of the molecues that are small enough to be absorbed into the bloodstream.

A ____     Peptides

B ____     Amino Acids

C ____     Glycogen

D ____     Fatty Acid

461)  Trypsin breaks down proteins into what molecule?

A ____     Glucose

B ____     The Loveboat season 1 DVD (I never liked that show.)

C ____     Nucleic acids

D ____     Peptides

462)  Where is pepsin converted into amino acids so that it can be absorbed?

A ____     Large Intestine

B ____     Stomach

C ____     Small Intestine

D ____     Pancreas

463)  What is the digested product of lipids that are small enough to be absorbed?

A ____     Fatty Acids & Glycerol

B ____     Monosaccharides & Peptides

C ____     Amino Acids & Glycerol

D ____     Peptides & Amino Acids

464)  What is the function of the bile released by the liver?

A ____     Activating enzymes in the stomach

B ____     Emulsification

C ____     Breaking down proteins into peptides

D ____     Sterilizing food

465)  What is the function of bile?

A ____     Activate enzymes

B ____     All of the above

C ____     Sterilize enzymes

D ____     Break up fat

466)  Which of the following are molecules that contribute to blood sugar?

A ____     Maltose

B ____     Lactose

C ____     Glucose

D ____     Sucrose

467)  Which of these enzymes all digest protein?

A ____     amylolytic amylase, rennin, trypsin

B ____     pepsin, maltase, peptidase

C ____     nuclease, sucrase, gastric lipase

D ____     carboxypolypeptidease, pepsin, trypsin

468)  Which is the end product made by the actions of lipolytic enzyme from the pancreas?

A ____     Peptides

B ____     Nucleotides

C ____     Dissacchorides

D ____     Fatty acid and glycerol

469)  Which of the following enzymes can break down nutrients completely (small enough to be absorbed) in only one step?

A ____     Lypolytic Enzyme

B ____     Nuclease

C ____     Amolytic Amylase

D ____     Rennin

(8)Nutrients

470)  What makes something organic?

A ____     Must have both Carbon and Hydrogen atoms.

B ____     Made on a farm with no harmful chemicals.

C ____     Has carbon atoms.

D ____     Is a living organism.

471)  What monosaccharide is preferred by our bodies for respiration?

A ____     Xylose

B ____     Glucose

C ____     Galactose

D ____     Fructose

472)  What vitamin is essential for the production of collagen?

A ____     D

B ____     C

C ____     K

D ____     B-12

473)  Where are most minerals stored in your body?

A ____     kidneys

B ____     stomach

C ____     bones and teeth

D ____     arms

474)  Which chemical element is present in proteins that is absent in lipids and carbohydrates?

A ____     nitrogen

B ____     lipids

C ____     amino acids

D ____     glucose

475)  Which of these has the most calories?

A ____     Polysaccharides

B ____     Water

C ____     Monosaccharides

D ____     Disaccharides

476)  Why is water considered a nutrient?

A ____     it quenches your thirst

B ____     gives you strong bones

C ____     Water is needed regularly

D ____     keeps you hydrated

477)  All carbohydrates are made up of what units?

A ____     nucleotides

B ____     fatty acids / glycerol

C ____     monosaccharides

D ____     amino acids

478)  This is a CheckBoxes question. There is more than one possible answer.

Which of these are polysaccharides that you CAN digest?

A ____     Cellulose

B ____     Glycogen

C ____     Starch

D ____     Sucrose

479)  How does the body use Iron?

A ____     production of hemoglobin

B ____     synthesis of thyroid glands

C ____     contraction of blood coagulation

D ____     important role in metabolic reactions

480)  How many essential amino acids are there in an adult?

A ____     8

B ____     6

C ____     10

D ____     2

481)  Based on what you know about digestion, which carbohydrate below would contain the fewest calories?

A ____     Glucose

B ____     Starch

C ____     Fructose

D ____     Cellulose

482)  Scurvy is a lack of which vitamin?

A ____     Vitamin B12

B ____     Vitamin Awesome

C ____     Vitamin A

D ____     Vitamin C

483)  What are the sub units of proteins?

A ____     disaccharides

B ____     monosaccarides

C ____     nitrogen

D ____     amino acids

484)  What are the two uses of lipids in the body?

A ____     give off oxygen and swallow foods

B ____     store energy and build cells

C ____     store fat and destroy cells

D ____     kill blood cells and store energy

485)  What disease does Vitamin K protect you from?

A ____     Cancer

B ____     Scurvy

C ____     Parkinson's Disease

D ____     Bleeding Disorders

486)  What does one of you cells use glucose for?

A ____     Production of collagen

B ____     Dancing

C ____     Carry oxygen

D ____     Cellular Respiration

487)  This is a CheckBoxes question. There can be more than 1 correct answer. Check all that apply.

What does Vitamin A help your body build and maintain?

A ____     bones

B ____     skin

C ____     retina

D ____     teeth

488)  This is a CheckBoxes question. There can be more than 1 correct answer. Check all that apply.

What does calcium help your body build and maintain?

A ____     retina

B ____     teeth

C ____     skin

D ____     bones

489)  What is a example of a Polysaccaride?

A ____     Glucose

B ____     Plant Starch

C ____     Glycerol

D ____     Amino Acids

490)  Which of these is something that the mineral potassium used for?

A ____     Muscle Development

B ____     Nerve Function

C ____     Bone Growth

D ____     Thyroid hormone production

491)  Which of these is something that the mineral iodine used for?

A ____     Muscle Development

B ____     Thyroid hormone production

C ____     Nerve Function

D ____     Bone Growth

492)  Which of these is something that the mineral phosphorus used for?

A ____     Bone Growth

B ____     Nerve Function

C ____     Thyroid hormone production

D ____     Metabolic reactions

493)  What is a natural sources of saturated fats?

A ____     Plants

B ____     Veggie Oil

C ____     Animal Meat

D ____     Starch

494)  What isn't a common disaccharide?

A ____     maltose

B ____     fructose

C ____     lactose

D ____     sucrose

495)  Amyloytic Amylase breaks down what into disaccharide?

A ____     Starch only

B ____     Proteins

C ____     Starch and Glycogen

D ____     Monosaccharides

(5) Digestive Physiology

496)  How is your chewing different from a dogs?

A ____     We can move our jaws side to side

B ____     Nothing we chew the same

C ____     Because we're superior

D ____     Dogs have bigger mouths and we don't

497)  How long does it take food to digest in the small intestine?

A ____     3-4 hours

B ____     12-24 hours

C ____     10-12 hours

D ____     5-6 hours

498)  In the small intestine, where are the most digestive enzymes secreted?

A ____     In the jejumum

B ____     At the Pyloric Spyncter

C ____     At the Spyncter of Oti in the Duodenum

D ____     In the Illium

499)  Peristalsis is…

A ____     The secretion of bile in the liver and its path through the common bile duct

B ____     The best Foreign Film Award winner in 2002

C ____     The act of chemical digestion in the stomach

D ____     The forward of motion of food through the digestive system

500)  What is rhythmic segmentation?

A ____     backs up of food in the small intestine

B ____     pinching movement of chyme back and forth in the small intestine

C ____     forward movement of food in the small intestine

D ____     thorwing up food from the small intestine

501)  What is the correct word for a swallow

A ____     Bolus

B ____     Feces

C ____     Amylase

D ____     Mastication

502)  What is the meaning of Chyme?

A ____     "a swallow"

B ____     its another word for Bolus

C ____     chewing

D ____     food/gastric juice mixture

503)  What protects your esophagus when you are about to vomit?

A ____     amino acids

B ____     saliva

C ____     mucus

D ____     chyme

504)  What is typically the main physical difference between a bolus and chyme?

A ____     organ placement

B ____     chime is full of stomach fluids

C ____     bolus is a solid but chime is a liquid

D ____     bolus is in the stomach chime is in the colon

505)  Which mineral is most widely used for metabolism in your cells?

A ____     calcium

B ____     iodine

C ____     potassium

D ____     phosphorus

506)  which of the following two make the color of poo?

A ____     bilirubin, biliverdin

B ____     carb, bilirubin

C ____     mucus, chyme

D ____     bile, diarrhea

(10) Digestive Anatomy

507)  What serves as a link between the mouth and the stomach?

A ____     The Esophagus

B ____     The Common Bile Duct

C ____     The Larynx

D ____     The Eppiglottis

508)  Which of these is not one of the regions of the pharynx?

A ____     Senopharynx

B ____     Laryngiopharynx

C ____     Oropharynx

D ____     Nasopharynx

509)  Check all of the functions of Goblet Cells.

A ____     Mucus Production

B ____     Absorption of Nutrients into the Blood

C ____     Protection of Stomach from Acids

D ____     Production of Digestive Enzymes

510)  Mastication is the process of what?

A ____     chewing

B ____     spitting

C ____     puking

D ____     swallowing

511)  Name the 3 sections of the small intestine.

A ____     nasopharynx, pharynx, esophagus

B ____     goblet cells, circular muscle, mucosa

C ____     palate, villi, serosa

D ____     duodenum, jejunum, ilium

512)  Name the phase of digestion that reduces food into smaller pieces of the same material.

A ____     Absorption

B ____     Mechanical

C ____     Chemical

D ____     Egestion

513)  This is an Ordering question.

Put these organs in the order that they are used in the digestive process.

A ____     Stomach

B ____     Sigmoid Colon

C ____     Pancreas

D ____     Esophagus

514)  What is another name for the material as you are swallowing it.

A ____     bolus

B ____     mastication

C ____     degulation

D ____     chyme

515)  What is the process that alters the molecules of the food you have eaten?

A ____     Absorption

B ____     Egestion

C ____     Mechanical

D ____     Chemical

516)  What tissue is the mouth lined with?

A ____     Stratified Squamous

B ____     Simple Squamous

C ____     mastication

D ____     Connection Muscle

517)  What tissue is the mucosa of the stomach made out of?

A ____     simple squamous

B ____     mucus

C ____     simple columnar

D ____     smooth muscle

518)  What is the name of the "punching bag" structure that blocks your nose when you swallow?

A ____     Lips

B ____     Uvula

C ____     Palate

D ____     Ova

519)  What is the name of the process of breaking down food with your teeth?

A ____     Mastication

B ____     Salivation

C ____     Deglutation

D ____     Chewing

520)  What is the function of the pyloric sphincher?

A ____     opens when you vomit

B ____     Produces gastric secretions

C ____     Produces insulin

D ____     Opens when food enters duodenum

521)  what kind of acid is held in the stomach?

A ____     Sulfuric

B ____     amino acid

C ____     none of they above

D ____     Hydrochloric

522)  What is a function of the acid in your stomach?

A ____     Block absorption of Alcohol

B ____     Digest Lipids

C ____     Activate Enzymes

D ____     Emulsify Fats

523)  Where does your body perform the first digestion of what you eat?

A ____     Mouth

B ____     Esophagus

C ____     Large Intestine

D ____     Stomach

524)  Which of the following phases of digestion happens first?

A ____     chemical - enzymes break large molecules into small molecules.

B ____     Absorption- passage of digested food from lumen to blood in submucosa.

C ____     Mechanical- breaking large chunks to small ones.

D ____     egestion- removal of undigested food.

525)  Which of these allow your mucosa to stretch?

A ____     rugae

B ____     goblet cells

C ____     submucosa

D ____     serosa

526)  Which of these is a source of unsaturated fat?

A ____     steak

B ____     almonds

C ____     chicken

D ____     peanuts

(10) Digestive Diagrams

527)  Identify the Pharynx.

528)  This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.

Identify the esophagus.

529)  This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.

Identify the stomach.

530)  This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.

Identify the liver.

531)  This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.

Identify the common bile duct.

532)  This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.

Identify the Pancreatic Duct.

533)  This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.

Identify the gall bladder.

534)  This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.

Identify the pancreas.

535)  This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.

Identify the small intestine.

536)  This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.

Identify the Ascending Colon.

537)  This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.

Identify the Transverse Colon.

538)  This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.

Identify the Decending Colon.

539)  This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.

Identify the Sigmoid Colon.

540)  This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.

Identify the Rectum.

541)  This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.

Identify a salavary gland.

542)  This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.

Identify the Cecum.

543)  This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.

Identify the Appendix.

544)  This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.

Identify the arteriole.

545)  This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.

Identify the Duodenum.

546)  This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.

Identify the Jejunum.

547)  This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.

Identify the Ilium.

548)  This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.

Identify the venule.

549)  This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.

Identify the lacteal.

550)  This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.

Identify the lymphatic vessle.

551)  This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.

Identify the columnar cells.

552)  This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.

In the "Stairlike region", Identify the Longitudinal Muscle.

553)  This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.

In the "Stairlike region", Identify the Circular Muscle.

554)  This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.

In the "Stairlike region", Identify the Oblique Muscle.

555)  This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.

In the "Stairlike region", Identify the Submucosa.

556)  This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.

Identify the mucosa.

557)  This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.

Identify the Pyloric Sphyncter.

558)  This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.

Identify the Duodenum.

The Endocrine System

(2) The Hypothalamus

81)  (Hypothalamus)  Which hormone stops the process of lactation?

A ____     Lutenizing Hormone (LH)

B ____     Vasopressin (ADH)

C ____     LOL

D ____     Prolactin Inhibiting Hormone (PIH)

82)  (Hypothalamus) Where are the gonads located?

A ____     In the pelvic cavity

B ____     In the thoracic cavity.

C ____     In your brain

D ____     In the abdominal cavity

83)  (Hypothalamus) What is the main purpose of the hypothalamus?

A ____     it tells the other endocrine organs when to do what they were made to do

B ____     makes hair grow

C ____     increases blood pressure

D ____     determines whether you're a boy or girl

84)  (Hypothalamus) What does the vasopressin do?

A ____     increases energy level

B ____     all of the above

C ____     body temp contol

D ____     regulates blood pressure

85)  (Hypothalamus) What does Oxytocin cause?

A ____     Ovulation

B ____     Sex drive

C ____     urerine contractions, lactation

D ____     menstruation

86)  (Hypothalamus) what does Prolactin Inhibiting Hormone (PIH) cause?

A ____     stimulates production of sperm

B ____     stimulates testosterone production by the testes

C ____     stimulates lactation

D ____     prevents lactation in new mothers

87)  (Hypothalamus) What is the effect does Prolactin Inhibiting Hormone (PIH)cause in the body?

A ____     Removes excess water from blood

B ____     increase metabolic rate

C ____     Stops Lactation

D ____     Uterine contractions

88)  (Hypothalamus) What is a term that best describes the hypothalamus?

A ____     Pitutiary

B ____     sugar regulator

C ____     reproductive control

D ____     Master control

89)  (Hypothalamus) Check the box with the horomone that is NOT made by the hypothalamus.

A ____     Lutenizing Hormone (LH)- Lutenizing Horomone

B ____     Vasopressin (ADH)-Vasopression

C ____     Prolactin Inhibiting Hormone (PIH)- Prolactic Inhibiting Horomone

D ____     Corticotropin Releasing Hormone (CRH)- Corticotropin Releasesing Horomone

90)  (Hypothalamus) This is a Point and Click question. You must click the "Media" button.

Where is the Hypothalamus?

(2) The Ovaries

91)  (ovaries) What are the primary sex chracteristics of a female?

A ____     ovaries, uterus, and vagina

B ____     penis and testes

C ____     toes, and fingers

D ____     low blood pressure

92)  (ovaries) What are the secondary sex chracteristics of a female?

A ____     high pitch voice, less body hair, more feminine features

B ____     more body hair, lower pitch voice, more muscle mass

C ____     fingers and toes

D ____     england

93)  (ovaries) What effect does the hormone progesterone have on the female body?

A ____     causes secondary and primary sex characteristics in females

B ____     creates the sex drive

C ____     causes primary and secondary  sex characteristics in males

D ____     Causes changes involved with the menstrual cycle.

94)  (ovaries) estrogen causes which of the following primary sex characteristics in females?

A ____     ovaries

B ____     breast development

C ____     lack of hair

D ____     thicker body fat under the skin

95)  (ovaries) Estrogen causes what?

A ____     Estrogen casues primary and secondary sex char. in females.

B ____     Estrogen casues wemon to be completely insane.

C ____     Estrogen casuses primary and secondary sex char. in males

D ____     Estrogen causes a raise in glucagon.

96)  (ovaries) This is a Point and Click question. You must Identify "Media".

Identify the ovaries.

(2) The Pancreas

97)  (Pancreas) How would your levels of insulin or glucagon change in the hours after pancakes and bacon?

A ____     Increased insulin

B ____     Decreased glucagon

C ____     decreased insulin

D ____     No change in either

98)  (Pancreas) If a person is diagnosed with diabetes, their body has trouble producing which hormone?

A ____     thyroxin

B ____     glucagon

C ____     insulin

D ____     melatonin

99)  (Pancreas) What effect of the pancreas increases the use of blood sugar by cells ( how they spend it )?

A ____     insulin

B ____     minsulin

C ____     glucagon

D ____     rat girl

100)  (Pancreas) What is produced in the pancreas?

A ____     insulin

B ____     Glucagon

C ____     Insulin and Glucagon

D ____     energy

101)  (Pancreas) Insulin does which of the following?

A ____     lowers blood glucose by stimulating glucose uptake cells

B ____     is a secondary sex characteristic in a female

C ____     responsible for male libdo

D ____     increases metabolic rate throughout body

102)  (Pancreas) What triggers the hormone release in the Pancreas?

A ____     Blood Sugar Level

B ____     Hypothalamus

C ____     Fear, Surprise

D ____     Blood Calcuim Level

103)  (Pancreas) What is the function of Glucagon?

A ____     Increases release of blood sugar from glucogen in liver

B ____     Decreases storage of blood sugar as fat

C ____     The same thing insulin does

D ____     It doesn't involve blood sugar.

104)  (Pancreas) Which of the following increases the use of blood sugar by cells?

A ____     Insulin

B ____     Glucagon

C ____     None of the above

D ____     Both A and B

105)  (Pancreas) Which hormone in the Pancreas controls blood calcium levels?

A ____     calcitonin

B ____     thyroxin

C ____     glucagon

D ____     none of these do

106)  (Pancreas) Which of the following pairs of hormones work together to increase and lower blood sugar levels in the pancreus?

A ____     insulin and glucoseamine

B ____     melatonin and aldosterone

C ____     estrogen and testosterone

D ____     glucagon and insulin

107)  (Pancreas) Insulin controls the blood sugar level by

A ____     Taking glucose out of the blood.

B ____     storing glucose.

C ____     cockroaches

D ____     making calcium

108)  (Pancreas) what triggers glucagon

A ____     decrease in blood pressure

B ____     blood calcium

C ____     fear

D ____     stress

E ____     low blood sugar levels

109)  (Pancreas) This is a Point and Click question. You must Identify "Media".

Identify the pancreas.

(2) The Parathyroid

110)  (Parathyroid) Your parathyroid regulates and works with which substance?

A ____     Phospherus

B ____     Iron

C ____     Potassium

D ____     Calcium

111)  (Parathyroid) Parathyroid Hormone (PTH) causes what element to be stored from blood into bones

A ____     Potassium

B ____     Phosphorus

C ____     Calcium

D ____     Carbon

112)  (Parathyroid) What is the effect of Parathyroid in the body?

A ____     causes more Ca to be removed from bones to blood

B ____     increase use of blood sugar

C ____     increase metabolic rate throughout body

D ____     causes more Ca to be removed from blood to bones

113)  This is a Point and Click question. You must click the "Media" button.

Where is the Parathyroid?

(2) The Pineal Gland

114)  (Pineal) If you are feeling tired or sleepy, your are experencing thr effects of what hormone?

A ____     insulin

B ____     melatonin

C ____     calcitonin

D ____     estrogen

115)  (Pineal) Melatonin causes the feeling of….

A ____     Stress

B ____     Sleepiness

C ____     Anger

D ____     Joy

116)  (Pineal) In the Pineal what hormone causes the feeling of sleep

A ____     insulin

B ____     melatonin

C ____     cortisol

D ____     estrogen

117)  (Pineal) You body temperature is increased by which hormone

A ____     Thyrotropin (TSH)

B ____     Prolactin Inhibiting Hormone (PIH)

C ____     Thyrotropin Releasing Hormone (TRH)

D ____     Vasopressin (ADH)

118)  (Pineal) Circadian Rhythm is caused by which of the following hormone?

A ____     Cortisole

B ____     Norman E. Pinephrine

C ____     Thyrotropin

D ____     Melatonin

119)  (Pineal) This is a Point and Click question. You must click the "Media" button.

Where is the Pineal Gland?


(4) The Pituitary

120)  (Pituitary) Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) stimulates the production of what?

A ____     Corticotropin Releasing Hormone (ACTH)

B ____     Female Egg

C ____     Males muscle

D ____     Prolactin

121)  (Pituitary) Changes in light levels triggers the release of what?

A ____     Adrenaline

B ____     Melatonin

C ____     The dogs

D ____     Melanin

122)  (Pituitary) Feelin frisky? What do you suppose just got released into your system?

A ____     Melatonin

B ____     Antigens

C ____     Insulin

D ____     Androgens

123)  (Pituitary) What does Thyrtropin do?

A ____     controls your metabolism and body tempature

B ____     testorone

C ____     blood pressure

D ____     energy level

124)  (Pituitary) What is the effect of Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) in females?

A ____     Increased metabolic rate and body temperature

B ____     Egg Production

C ____     Ovulation

D ____     Sperm Maturation

125)  (Pituitary) Which of the following hormones is NOT used in the Pituitary?

A ____     Corticotropin Releasing Hormone (ACTH)

B ____     Lutenizing Hormone (LH)

C ____     Thyrotropin (TSH)

D ____     CRB

126)  (Pituitary) Which one(s) are not Pituitary hormones?

A ____     Vasopressin (ADH)

B ____     Lutenizing Hormone (LH)

C ____     Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)

D ____     Thyrotropin (TSH)

127)  (Pituitary) This is a Point and Click question. You must click the "Media" button.

Where is the Pituitary?

(2) The Testes

128)  (Testes) Testosterone is present in __________.

A ____     males

B ____     females

C ____     neither

D ____     both, but is dominant in males.

129)  (Testes) What causes the primary and secondary sex characteristics in males?

A ____     TESTOSTERONE

B ____     RICKY

C ____     PROGESTERONE

D ____     SUGAR

130)  (Testes) How many testes are there in the body?

A ____     2

B ____     1

C ____     3

D ____     0

131)  (Testes) What triggers the release of the hormones in the Testes?

A ____     Instructions from the pituitary and hypothalamus

B ____     Instructions from the hypothalamus

C ____     Instructions from the pituitary

D ____     Fear, surprise

132)  (Testes) What are secondary effects of testosterone?

A ____     Muscle growth, hair growth and deep voice

B ____     High pitched voice

C ____     Less body hair

D ____     Penis

133)  (Testes) What effect does testosterone have on the body?

A ____     Causes primary and secondary sex characterstics in males

B ____     increases metaboilc rates throughout the body

C ____     triggers puberty and increases sex drive

D ____     Both A and C

E ____     0

134)  (Testes) This is a Point and Click question. You must Identify "Media".

Identify the testes.

(3) The Thyroid

135)  (thyroid) The release of calcitonin causes which effect on the body?

A ____     causes more CA to be removed from bones into blood

B ____     increases use of blood sugar by cells

C ____     causes more CA to be stored from blood into the bones

D ____     increase of metabolic rate throughout the body

136)  (thyroid) What does thyroxin do throughout your body?

A ____     Helps your eyesight

B ____     Increases your metabolism

C ____     Increases the absorbtion rate of nutrients throught villi.

D ____     Increases efficiency of digestive system

137)  (thyroid) What causes the increase in the metabolic rate throughout the body

A ____     THYROXIN

B ____     CORTISOL

C ____     CALCITONIN

D ____     Thallium

138)  (thyroid) What effect does the hormone Thyroxin have?

A ____     Causes more calcium to be stroed from blood into bones

B ____     Incrases the metabolic rate throughout the body

C ____     Decreases the metabolic rate throughout the body

D ____     Does not effect the metabolic rate throughout the body

139)  (thyroid) What are the hormones that are secreted from the thyroid?

A ____     both Calcitonin and Thyroxin

B ____     none of these

C ____     thyroxin

D ____     Calcitonin

140)  (thyroid) Which hormone causes more calcium to be stored from blood to bones?

A ____     thyroxin

B ____     calcitonin

C ____     Corticotropin Releasing Hormone (CRH)

D ____     insulin

141)  This is a Point and Click question. You must click the "Media" button.

Where is the Thyroid?

142)  (thyroid) The release of calcitonin causes which effect on the body?

A ____     causes more CA to be stored from blood into the bones

B ____     increases use of blood sugar by cells

C ____     increase of metabolic rate throughout the body

D ____     causes more CA to be removed from bones into blood

143)  (thyroid) What does thyroxin do throughout your body?

A ____     Increases efficiency of digestive system

B ____     Increases your metabolism

C ____     Increases the absorbtion rate of nutrients throught villi.

D ____     Helps your eyesight

144)  (thyroid) What causes the increase in the metabolic rate throughout the body

A ____     CORTISOL

B ____     THYROXIN

C ____     CALCITONIN

D ____     Thallium

145)  (thyroid) What effect does the hormone Thyroxin have?

A ____     Causes more calcium to be stroed from blood into bones

B ____     Incrases the metabolic rate throughout the body

C ____     Decreases the metabolic rate throughout the body

D ____     Does not effect the metabolic rate throughout the body

146)  (thyroid) What are the hormones that are secreted from the thyroid?

A ____     none of these

B ____     thyroxin

C ____     Calcitonin

D ____     both Calcitonin and Thyroxin

147)  (thyroid) Which hormone causes more calcium to be stored from blood to bones?

A ____     thyroxin

B ____     insulin

C ____     calcitonin

D ____     Corticotropin Releasing Hormone (CRH)

(2) The Adrenal

148)  (Adrenal) One of the effects of the adrenal gland are ?

A ____     Alterness

B ____     Increased energy levels in muscles. "fight or flight"

C ____     Increases sex drive

D ____     all of theses

149)  (Adrenal) The adrenal gland is controlled by which of the following?

A ____     Pituitary

B ____     Hypothalmus

C ____     Pineal gland

D ____     Brain

150)  (Adrenal) What is the primary fight or flight hormone?

A ____     cortasol

B ____     epinephrine

C ____     aldosdron

D ____     androgens

151)  (Adrenal) Androgens do which of the following?

A ____     Triggers puberty and increases your sex drive

B ____     increases alertness and contributes to anger in high levels

C ____     causes feelings of sleep

D ____     causes primary and secondary female sex characteristics

152)  (Adrenal) Which of these hormones is secreted from the adrenal gland?

A ____     corisol

B ____     melatonin

C ____     estrogen

D ____     calcitonin

153)  (Adrenal) What is the function of the epinephrine hormone?

A ____     "fight or flight" response

B ____     increased cell growth and repair

C ____     increased use of blood sugar by cells

D ____     triggering puberty

154)  (Adrenal) What  does adolsterone do?

A ____     Both responsible for female secondary charactersitics and an increase in cell growth.

B ____     Increase in cell growth & repair

C ____     Triggers puberty

D ____     Causes primary and seconady sex characteristis in females.

155)  (Adrenal) Out of all the hormones in the adreanal gland, which one wakes you up?

A ____     Androgens

B ____     Epinephrine

C ____     Cortisol

D ____     Epinephrine

156)  (Adrenal) cortisol increases...

A ____     alertness

B ____     anger levels

C ____     energy

D ____     hunger

157)  (Adrenal) What triggers epinephrine?

A ____     fear and surprise

B ____     Instructions from pituitary and hypothalamus

C ____     light level stress

D ____     Increase in blood calcium level

158)  (Adrenal )This is a Point and Click question. You must Identify "Media".

Identify the Adrenal glands.

The Excretory System

(6) Kidney Structure

159)  What is the basic functional unit of the kidney?

A ____     renal pelvis

B ____     nephron

C ____     alveolus

D ____     renal pyramid

160)  Which of these is not a function of the kidneys?

A ____         The kidneys regulate the composition, volume, and pH of body fluids.

B ____     The kidneys deactivate vitamin D and stimulate the activity of osteoclasts.

C ____     The kidneys help to regulate blood pressure.

D ____     The kidneys help control the rate of red blood cell production.

161)  The outermost covering of the kidney is the _____.

A ____     cortex

B ____     medulla

C ____     pelvis

D ____     capsule

162)  Which structure is the first to collect the urine?

A ____     ureter

B ____     calyx

C ____     pelvis

D ____     urethra

163)  The renal pyramids are located within the _____.

A ____     medulla

B ____     pelvis

C ____     cortex

D ____     column

164)  The striated appearance of the pyramids is caused by _____.

A ____     parallel blood vessels

B ____     nerve fibers

C ____     connective tissue

D ____     microtubules

165)  The pyramids are areas located within the _____ of the kidney.

A ____     cortex

B ____     medulla

C ____     pelvis

D ____     capsule

166)  The outermost structure of a kidney is the _____.

A ____     cortex

B ____     capsule

C ____     pelvis

D ____     medulla

167)  Identify the Cortex.

168)  Click anywhere within the Medulla.

169)  Identify the Renal Pelvis.

170)  Identify one of the Renal Columns.

171)  Identify one of the Ureter.

172)  Identify one of the Renal Pyramids.

173)  Identify a Pelvic Sinus.

(8) Nephron Structure and Function

174)  What is the function of the nephron?

A ____     regulate blood pressure

B ____     all of these

C ____     maintain blood pH

D ____     control blood concentration

175)  Which structure monitors and regulates blood pressure in the Glomerulus?

A ____     Juxtaglomerular apparatus

B ____     Golgi apparatus

C ____     Renal Artery

D ____     Loop of Henle

176)  Which of the following are not found in the fluid filtered in the glomerulus?

A ____     urea

B ____     glucose

C ____     protein

D ____     hemoglobin

177)  Most reabsorption of water back into the blood occurs in the ____________.

A ____     Renal Pelvis

B ____     Distal Convaluted Tubule (DCT)

C ____     Decending Loop of Henle

D ____     Glomerulus

178)  Most tubular reabsorption of salt back into the blood occurs at the _____.

A ____     Ascending Loop of Henle

B ____     distal convoluted tubule (DCT)

C ____     proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)

D ____     glomerulus

179)  The reabsorption of which of the following occurrs by active transport in the Proximal Convaluted Tubule (PCT)?

A ____     acids and bases

B ____     albumin

C ____     amino acids

D ____     Water

180)  Which of these is not usually secreted by the kidneys?

A ____     glucose

B ____     salt

C ____     penicillin

D ____     H+

181)  Most small proteins are reabsorbed by _______________.

A ____     osmosis

B ____     diffusion

C ____     Ity Bitty Sponges

D ____     active transport

182)  Where does diffusion of H+  into the tubules help control blood pH?

A ____     glomerulus

B ____     distal convoluted tubule

C ____     loop of Henle

D ____     proximal convoluted tubule

183)  Which muscle metabolism waste product is eliminated by the kidneys and gives the final excreted fluid it's name?

A ____     water

B ____     urea

C ____     glucose

D ____     amino acid

184)  Which ion is reabsorbed in exchange for sodium (salt)?

A ____     calcium

B ____     chloride

C ____     magnesium

D ____     potassium

185)  Put these in the order that they travel in the kidney.

A ____     glomerulus

B ____     collecting tubule

C ____     decending loop of Henle

D ____     bloodstream

186)  Identify the place where the waste leaves your bloodstream.

187)  Identify the place where nutrients like glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed into your blood.

188)  Identify the tubule where only water is being removed from the filtrate (filtered waste).

189)  Identify the region where your kidneys adjust the pH of your blood so that it is not too acidic.

190)  Identify the region where nothing but salt is being actively transported back into the blood.

191)  Which section of the nephron is after the ascending limb of the loop of Henle?

A ____     distal convoluted tubule

B ____     collecting duct

C ____     descending limb of the loop

D ____     proximal convoluted tubule

192)  The last part of a nephron is the _____.

A ____     renal papilla

B ____     glomerulus

C ____     collecting duct

D ____     distal convoluted tubule

193)  Choose the one trait that does not characterize the structure of a nephron.

A ____     Blood that will be filtered flows into the glomerular capsule.

B ____     There are two coiled portions of the renal tubule that filter blood before it enters the Glomerulus.

C ____     The glomerular blood vessels contain holes and slits to increase filtration.

D ____     Blood is stripped of both nutrients and waste, then nutrients are reabsorbed.

194)  The structure which receives the filtrate from the glomerulus is the _____.

A ____     distal convoluted tubule

B ____     proximal convoluted tubule

C ____     loop of Henle

D ____     Bowman capsule

195)  In which area can the term urine be correctly used?

A ____     nephron

B ____     loop of Henle

C ____     Bowman's capsule

D ____     collecting duct

196) Identify the Bowman's Capsule.

197) Identify the Proximal Convoluted Tubule.

198)  Identify the Decending Loop of Henle.

199)  Identify the Acending Loop of Henle.

200)  Identify the Distal Convoluted Tubule.

201)  Identify the Collecting Duct.

202)  The mucosa (lining) of the bladder is comprised of _____.

A ____     squamous epithelium

B ____     smooth muscle

C ____     simple columnar epithelium

D ____     transitional epithelium

203)  The ureter directly receives urine from the _____ of the kidney.

A ____     cortex

B ____     medulla

C ____     pelvis

D ____     pyramid

Embryology

(2) First Year

1)  In the first few months, the infant ____________ unknown people

A ____     developes fear of

B ____     cannot distinguish known from

C ____     has no concept of

D ____     is interested and curious about

2)  At around 7 months the baby can ____________.

A ____     understand that things exist even when not seen

B ____     play simple games

C ____     roll from stomach to back

D ____     lift it's head while lying on its stomach

3)  They  _____________ and explore new things in their environment

A ____     examine things by looking at them

B ____     put things in their mouths

C ____     become disinterested in people

4)  By the end of the first year, babies ___________.

A ____     are beginning to crawl but almost never walk

B ____     will often be walking.

C ____     have been successfully walking for months.

D ____     are still physically unable to walk.

5)  They begin to become self aware and develop object consistancy, meaning that _______________.

A ____     things in their surroundings are always disappearing and reappearing

B ____     that parents can be counted on to provide things like food

C ____     they recognize themselves in a mirror.

D ____     they understand that objects exist even when not visible

6)  __________ and memory strenghtens as a primary method of learning.

A ____     Drawing

B ____     Listening

C ____     Speech

D ____     Imitation

7)  In the 5th month the baby begins teething, which is _________.

A ____     The growth of teeth through the gums

B ____     The hardening of the gums into baby teeth

8)  Put these skills in the order they ocurr:

A ____     Sitting upright unassisted

B ____     Pulling themselves to a standing position

C ____     crawling on all 4s

D ____     Rolling from stomach to back

9)  There are ____ stages of Labor & ____ stage of Delivery

A ____     1 / 3

B ____     1 / 2

C ____     3 / 1

D ____     3 / 3

10)  "___________": Contractions Begin. Cervix begins dialating / effacing. Braxton Hicks contractions.

A ____     Active Labor

B ____     Delivery

C ____     Transition Phase

D ____     Early Labor

11)  "_____________" the mother's water breaks, contractions are Stronger. Cervix mostly dialated / effaced.

A ____     Active Labor

B ____     Delivery

C ____     Transition Phase

D ____     Early Labor

12)  Phase three-"__________" is the most challenging and painful phase. This is when the baby is delivered.

A ____     Active Labor

B ____     Transition Phase

C ____     Delivery

D ____     Early Labor

13)  Signs of the beginning of labor include: The baby drops,  more __________ contractions, cervix begins to ripen, pass your mucus plug or notice "bloody show", her ____________.

A ____     Braxton Hicks / water breaks

B ____     Transitional / cervix fully dialates

C ____     gentile / morning sickness returns

D ____     irregular / baby crowns

14)  The ____________ is the last stage of the entire process of Labor and Delivery. The mother will once again have to push. Bleeding, chills and exhaustion may occur.

A ____     birth of the baby

B ____     expulsion of the placenta

C ____     rupturing of the membranes

D ____     dialation of the cervix

15)  ____________ is when the baby is not positioned normally to be delivered.

A ____     Abruption

B ____     Breech

C ____     Placenta previa

D ____     Incompetent cervix

16)  __________ is when the baby accidentally passes its first bowel movement while still in the womb

A ____     Amniotic fouling

B ____     Fetal meconium

C ____     Vernix caseosa

D ____     Poops oops

17)  ____________ is where the placenta blocks the cervix and prevents a normal birth.

A ____     Placental Abruption

B ____     Breech

C ____     Incompetent cervix

D ____      Placenta previa

18)  __________ is a birth defect that causes incomplete formation of the upper lip (if severe the roof of your mouth)

A ____     Club palate

B ____     Binary Folding Syndrome

C ____     Encephalia

D ____     Cleft Lip

19)  A Fetal Monitor is used to watch the babies ________ during labor.

A ____     respiration rate

B ____     moulding of the cranial bones

C ____     position in the uterus

D ____      heart rate

20)  An ________ is injected into women's ________  during labor which causes a loss of sensation & loss of pain

A ____     endometrial / Spinal cord

B ____     epidural / vein

C ____     Epidural / Spinal cord

D ____     opiate / vein

21)  A C - section is delivery of the baby through surgical incision in the mother's ____________. 

A ____     diaphragm

B ____     ovaries and fallopian tubes

C ____     abdomen and uterus

D ____     vagina and cervix

22)  One advantage  of an epidural is ___________.

A ____     decreases the intensity of labor contractions

B ____     dialates the cervix more to make birth less painful.

C ____     speeds up labor making birth happen faster

D ____     relieves pain without affecting the baby

23)  One disadvantage  of an epidural is ___________.

A ____     speeds up labor making birth happen faster

B ____     dialates the cervix more than normal, making birth more painful.

C ____     it can slow the progress of labor

D ____     it increases the intensity of labor contractions, possibly harming the baby

24)  Zygote implants in __________ of uterus

A ____     Fallopian Tube

B ____     Fimbrae

C ____     Endometrium

D ____     Myometrium

25)  Form into two layers 1. epiblast which becomes the ________ and the amniotic fluid.  2. hypoblast which is the yolk sack.

A ____     Amniotic sack

B ____     embryo

26)  The ___________ forms. Marks the axis of the embryo. Embryonic cells fold over at ___________ to form an embryonic disk.

A ____     Embryonic axis

B ____     Blastocele

C ____     Primative Streak

D ____     Central cleft

27)  The _______ system is one of the 1st systems to develop.

A ____     Muscular

B ____     Digestive

C ____     Circulatory

D ____     Nervous

28)  Blood cells have already developed. Cardiac muscles __________

A ____     form into 2 chambers

B ____     start to contract

C ____     are not yet present

29)  In the first trimester, the ___________ form(s) the largest structure in the embryo.

A ____     Heart and Lungs

B ____     Skeleton

C ____     Liver

D ____     Brain and Spinal cord

30)  The heart separates into 4 chambers and the , __________ which is the master gland for all hormones and other glands, begins to form.

A ____     pituitary gland

B ____     Thyroid Gland

C ____     Adrenal gland

31)  The sex of the embryo will be recognizable because of the formation of the ____________.

A ____     gonads

B ____     Scrotum

C ____     Penis

D ____     Uterus

32)  Kidneys begin to __________ for the first time.

A ____     separate from one into two organs

B ____     migrate from the outside to the inside of the body

C ____     appear on an ultrasound

D ____     produce urine

33)  The brain can __________ and the primary teeth are at cap stage

A ____     Hear

B ____     get startled by sudden noises

C ____     wake and sleep

D ____     move muscles

34)  An disorder that could occur is  __________ where the egg implants in the fallopian tube and triess to develop there.

A ____     ectopic pregnancy

B ____     Rh incompatability

C ____     Placenta previa

D ____     breech birth

35)  The egg is released from the ________ and enters the _________ where it is fertilized by a sperm.

A ____     fimbrae / corpus luteum

B ____     ovary / uterus

C ____     ovary / fallopian tube

36)  After about _____, the egg makes it to the uterus and implants on the uterine wall.

A ____     2 days

B ____     12 hours

C ____     4 days

D ____     6 hours

37) 

____________ in the mother normally supplies the fetus with nutrients.

A ____     Larger lungs

B ____     Increased blood supply

C ____     Pica

D ____     increased kidney function

38)  The uterus physically _______ so its not pressing on your bladder.

A ____     becomes more narrow

B ____     shifts upward

C ____     enlarges

D ____     gets smaller

39)  The hormone  ____________ relaxes the stomach and intestines, which leads to excess acids not being pushed out of the digestive tract - causes morning sickness.

A ____     oxytocin

B ____     progesterone

C ____     estrogen

40)  Sense of _______ becomes sensitive, things that used to be acceptable may now bother the mother.

A ____     touch

B ____     hearing

C ____     smell

D ____     sight

41)  ____________ tend to swell due to highter levels of progesteronen and estrogen, which helps cervix stay closed but can cause allergic type symptoms.

A ____     capillaries

B ____     Lungs

C ____     Mucus membranes

42)  _________ has increased which may make the mother feel warmer.

A ____     Heartrate

B ____     Appetitie

C ____     Blood volume

D ____     Lung capacity

43) 

A disorder called __________ can cause strange cravings are: metal, coins, ash, coal, clay, soil, feces, chalk, paper, soap, kerosene, gum, etc. Usually caused by an iron deficiency

A ____     Paba

B ____     Pata

C ____     Pica

D ____     Para

44)   For boys, the testes are beginning to ________.

A ____     separate

B ____     enlarge

C ____     form

D ____     descend

45)   In girls, the uterus is in place  ___________.

A ____     and the ovaries make a lifetime of eggs.

B ____      but the ovaries won't produce eggs until the 3rd trimester.

C ____     but the ovaries have not developed yet.

D ____     but is not connected to the ovaries by fallopian tubes.

46)  The fetus' lungs are beginning to produce surfactant- which____________________

A ____     stimulates faster lung growth

B ____     prevents lungs from collapsing after birth

C ____     prevents amniotic fluid from entering the lungs while in uterus

47)  _________ starts making fetal blood cells

A ____     The umbilical cord

B ____     The fetuses bone marrow

C ____     The mothers blood cells

48)  The developing fetus can now _________________.

A ____     hear the mothers  heartbeat

B ____     survive outside the womb

C ____     see the light through the abdomen

49)  Baby now has phases of ___________.

A ____     audible heartbeats between periods where the heart stops.

B ____     growth between periods of no growth

C ____     sleeping between breif periods of waking

50)  _________ is when the placenta grows in the lowest part of the uterus and covers all or part of the opening to cervix.

A ____     Incompetent cervix

B ____     Ectopic pregnancy

C ____     Placenta Previa

51)  Begins in the______ week and ends in the _______ week of pregnancy. (range varies)

A ____     28th - 36th

B ____     11th / 16th

C ____     10th / 27th

D ____     17 / 35th

52)  The baby's heartbeat becomes audible using a specific type of ____________.

A ____     ultrasound.

B ____     CAT scan

C ____     X-ray

D ____     MRI

53)  The fetus' skin is protected with a greasy, cheese-like coating called ______________.

A ____     mycomium

B ____     vibrio cholera

C ____     fetal fontainellus

D ____     vernix caseosa

54)  Tissue that will become ___________ is also developing around the fetus' head and within the arms and legs

A ____     skin

B ____     hair

C ____     muscle

D ____     bone

55)  The fetus' ______ have begun to face forward and slowly move.

A ____     fingers / toes

B ____     eyes

C ____     lips

56)  ________ begins to develop under the fetus' skin to provide energy and help keep the fetus warm after birth.

A ____     vernix

B ____     body hair

C ____     collagen

D ____      Fat storages

57)  The mother no longer experiences frequent ______.

A ____     weight gain

B ____     fetal movements

C ____     stretch marks

D ____     morning sickness

58)  The mother can start to feel the first _________.

A ____     morning sickness

B ____     fetal movements

C ____     loss of weight

59)  The mother may start to have _________ in the areas of the belly, butt, thighs, hips and breast

A ____     stretch marks

B ____     bruising

C ____     unusual sensitivity to temperature

60)  During the second Trimester the pregnant woman starts to  __________.

A ____     have Braxton Hicks contractions

B ____     have the highest risk of miscarriage

C ____     increase in weight

D ____     experience morning sickness

61)  The mother begins to ______________________.

A ____     notice smells more strongly

B ____     feel the kicks, twists and turns of the baby

C ____     lose weight

D ____     hear the babies heartbeat in a quiet room

62)  ___________ are being transferred from the mother's blood to the baby.

A ____     Immunities

B ____     amniotic fluids

C ____     Blood cells

63)  The risk of ___________ is much less common in the second trimester

A ____     Miscarriage

B ____     Preeclampsia

C ____     Placenta previa

D ____     Placental abruption

64)  Symptoms of _________ include high BP,sudden weight gain, swelling

A ____     Preeclampsia:

B ____     Placenta previa

C ____     Miscarriage

D ____     Placental abruption

65)  A _______________ is when the placenta pulls away from uterus. Cuts off nourishment. Endangers baby.

A ____     Placenta previa

B ____     placental abruption:

C ____     Miscarriage

D ____     Preeclampsia

66)  Incompetent cervix is when the _____________ before the baby is ready to be born.

A ____     placenta pulls away from the uterine wall

B ____     cervix begins to open

C ____     placenta blocks the opening to the cervix

67)  Treatment for ______________ includes BP medication and bed rest.

A ____     Preeclampsia

B ____     Miscarriage

C ____     Placental abruption

D ____     Placenta previa

68)  3rd Trimester is the time period from __________ weeks.

A ____     14 to 30

B ____     36 - 40

C ____     24 to 40

D ____     10 to 24

69)  The babys ________ is (are) fully developed, but still flexible.

A ____     bones

B ____     brain

C ____     skin

D ____     lungs

70)  The most rapid _________ growth occurs in the middle of this trimester.

A ____     hair

B ____     brain

C ____     reproductive organ

D ____     muscle and bone

71)  Near the end of the trimester, the babys internal organs are complex and developed enough to ________________

A ____     be seen on ultrasound

B ____     function outside the uterus

C ____     be repaired surgically

D ____     be felt through the mothers abdomen

72)  By Week 40, the baby is "________" and ready to be delivered.

A ____     "embryionically fertile"

B ____     "full term"

C ____     "metabolicly manageable"

D ____     "Encephalic"

73)  by the end of the 3rd trimester, testes of male fetuses are ___________.

A ____     still inside the pelvic cavity.

B ____     still not formed

C ____     fully descended into the scrotum

D ____     fused into 1 gonad which will separate after birth

74)  Fetus begins __________ immune system.

A ____     to use it's mothers immune system

B ____     to develop its own

C ____     to no longer require an

75)  In the middle of the trimester, the baby is __________ breathing.

A ____     no longer practicing

B ____     able to obtain oxygen with its own

C ____     starting to practice

D ____     still unable to attempt

76)  The babys pupils _______________.

A ____     are present but cannot detect light.

B ____     still have not formed yet.

C ____     can see right through the uterus and watch TV.

D ____     can now constrict, dilate and detect light.

77)  _______________ is a serious medical condition in which the placenta partially or completely peels away from the uterine wall, which can deprive the baby of oxygen and nutrients.

A ____     Placenta previa

B ____     Placenta Abruption

C ____     Preeclampsia:

D ____     Rh incompatability

78)  ___________ is a complication where the antibodies of the mother can cross the placenta and harm the baby.

A ____     Rh Imcombatibility

B ____     Preeclampsia:

C ____     Placenta previa

D ____     Placenta Abruption

79)   ___________ is a disorder where the mother has high blood pressure and protein in her urine, which can lead to premature birth.

A ____     Rh incompatability

B ____     Ectopic Pregnancy

C ____     Preeclampsia

D ____     Placenta previa

80)  The _________ of the baby can finally be determined during the 3rd trimester.

A ____     size

B ____     Neural tube disorders

C ____     Blood type

D ____     Gender