A&P 2 Final Exam Review Question
The Nervous System
The Circulatory System
331) What is the purpose of an anastamosis in your body?
A ____ allows small blood vessels to expand during emergencies
B ____ adds a protective membrane to superficial arteries
C ____ increases a vessles ability to heal if damaged
D ____ provide an alternate way for blood to get to a body part.
332) ___________ have the largest diameter lumen (hollow space) of any of the vessles.
A ____ Arterioles
B ____ Veins
C ____ Capillaries
D ____ venules
333) ___________ have valves that help bring blood back uphill from your lower body.
A ____ Arterioles
B ____ Veins
C ____ Capillaries
D ____ Venules
334) The walls of ___________ are made of only Simple squamous tissue.
A ____ Arterioles
B ____ Veins
C ____ Capillaries
D ____ Venules
335) __________ have muscular sphincters that help control where blood flows.
A ____ Arterioles
B ____ Veins
C ____ Capillaries
D ____ Venules
336) Which type of blood vessel is only found close to the heart?
A ____ Veins
B ____ artery
C ____ arteriole
D ____ capillary
337) This is a CheckBoxes question. It can have MORE THAN 1 answer. Check the box of ALL that apply.
Which of the following types of blood vessels have the Tunica Intima as one of their layers?
A ____ Elastic Arteries
B ____ Arterioles
C ____ Capillaries
D ____ Veins
338) This is a CheckBoxes question. It can have MORE THAN 1 answer. Check the box of ALL that apply.
Which of the following types of blood vessels have the Tunica Media as one of their layers?
A ____ Muscular Arteries
B ____ Arterioles
C ____ Capillaries
D ____ Venules
339) This is a CheckBoxes question. It can have MORE THAN 1 answer. Check the box of ALL that apply.
Which of the following types of blood vessels have the Tunica Adventitia as one of their layers?
A ____ Venules
B ____ Arterioles
C ____ Capillaries
D ____ Veins
340) This is a CheckBoxes question. It can have MORE THAN 1 answer. Check the box of ALL that apply.
Which of the following types of blood vessels have no muscle tissue in their walls?
A ____ Elastic Arteries
B ____ Arterioles
C ____ Capillaries
D ____ Veins
341) This is a CheckBoxes question. It can have MORE THAN 1 answer. Check the box of ALL that apply.
Which of the following types of blood vessels carry only oxygenated blood?
A ____ Arteries
B ____ Arterioles
C ____ Capillaries
D ____ Veins
342) This is a CheckBoxes question. It can have MORE THAN 1 answer. Check the box of ALL that apply.
Which of the following types of blood vessels allow oxygen and nutrients into surrounding tissues?
A ____ Elastic Arteries
B ____ Arterioles
C ____ Capillaries
D ____ Veins
343) This is a CheckBoxes question. It can have MORE THAN 1 answer. Check the box of ALL that apply.
Which of the following types of blood vessels carry blood that has already been through a capillary bed?
A ____ Venules
B ____ Arterioles
C ____ Muscular Arteries
D ____ Veins
344) This is a CheckBoxes question. It can have MORE THAN 1 answer. Check the box of ALL that apply.
Which of the following types of blood vessels DO have muscle tissue in their walls?
A ____ Elastic Arteries
B ____ Arterioles
C ____ Capillaries
D ____ Veins
345) Which part of the circulatory system circulates a fluid that is not blood?
A ____ Pulmonary
B ____ lymphatic
C ____ Hepatic / portal
346) Which blood vessles allow the exchange of materials between the blood and tissues?
A ____ lymphatic vessles
B ____ Arteries
C ____ veins
D ____ capillaries
347) What is the term that refers to an artery getting larger in diameter to allow more blood to flow?
A ____ volumization
B ____ dialation
C ____ confluation
D ____ constriction
348) Which type of vessel carries a small volume of blood under very low pressure?
A ____ Vein
B ____ venule
C ____ arteriole
D ____ capillary
125 123 122 121 127 from lungs 126 124 Human Arterial
System
120 119
Be able to identify any of these blood vessles:
Arteries:
A. Common Carotid, B. Subclavian, C. Axillary, D. Brachial, E. Coronary,
ab. Aortic Arch, ac. Coeliac,
ad. Superior mesenteric, ae. Inferior mesenteric, bc.Renal, bd. Common Iliac, be. External Iliac, cd. Internal iliac, ce. Femoral
Veins:
A. External Jugular, B.Subclavian, C. Axillary, D. Brachial,
E. Superior vena cava,
ab. Inferior vena cava ,ac. Renal,
ad. Common Iliac, ae. External Iliac,
bc. Internal iliac, bd. Femoral,
be. Portal, cd. Pulmonary
cd. Mesenteric de. Hepatic
349) Mitral valve prolapse is a disorder of the heart in which the mitral valve
A ____ does not open all the way
B ____ is missing as a result of abnormal development
C ____ leaks during ventricular relaxation
D ____ leaks during ventricular contraction
350) The term used to describe an abnormally slow heart rate
A ____ tachycardia
B ____ bradycardia
C ____ fibrillation
D ____ cardioversion
351) Identify the Left Atrioventricular Valve.
352) Identify the Left Pulmonary Veins.
353) Identify the Right Pulmonary Veins.
354) Identify the Left Pulmonary Artery.
355) Identify the Right Pulmonary Artery.
356) Identify the Brachiocephalic Artery.
357) Identify the Subclavian Artery.
358) Identify the Right Atrioventricular Valve.
359) Identify the Aortic Semilunar Valve.
360) Identify the Pulmonary Semilunar Valve.
361) Identify the Left Atrium.
362) Identify the Right Atrium.
363) Identify the Left Ventricle.
364) Identify the Right Ventricle.
365) Identify the Aortic Arch.
366) Identify the
367) Identify the Pulmonary Trunk.
368) What is the approximate size of your heart?
A ____ The size of your foot
B ____ The size of Two Fists
C ____ The Size of your head
D ____ the size of your fist
369) The loose-fitting, tough sac around the heart is the
A ____ parietal pericardium
B ____ visceral pericardium
C ____ fiberous pericardium
D ____ endocardium
370) Which of the following is not a branch of the aorta?
A ____ the right coronary artery
B ____ the pulmonary artery
C ____ the brachiocephalic artery
D ____ the left subclavian artery
371) The general name for the loose fitting sac around the heart is the
A ____ myocardium
B ____ pericardium
C ____ epicardium
D ____ endocardium
372) Type the number of valves found in your heart (use digits (10), not words (ten))
_________________________
(5) Intrinsic (Cardiac) Conduction System
373) In an EKG pattern, the P-Q interval indicates how long it takes for the cardiac impulse to travel from the
A ____ S-A node to the AV node
B ____ S-A node to the atrial muscle fibers
C ____ S-A node to the ventricular muscle fibers
D ____ A-V node to the atrial muscle fibers
374) Which of the following is considered a secondary pacemaker for the heart?
A ____ A-V node
B ____ Purkinje fibers
C ____ both A-V node and Purkinje fibers
D ____ neither A-V node nor Purkinje fibers
375) Which chambers of the heart does the A-V node send impulses directly to?
A ____ Atria only
B ____ Atria and Ventricles
C ____ Ventricles only
D ____ None of these
376) What is happening during the T wave?
A ____ Atria contract
B ____ Ventricles contract
C ____ Ventricles recharge
D ____ Heart does no activities at all
377) Which of the following is considered a secondary pacemaker for the heart?
A ____ A-V node
B ____ Purkinje fibers
C ____ both A-V node and Purkinje fibers
D ____ neither A-V node nor Purkinje fibers
378) The primary pacemaker of the heart is the
A ____ Purkinje fibers
B ____ bundle of His
C ____ sinoatrial node
D ____ atrioventricular node
379) Which chambers of the heart does the A-V node send impulses directly to?
A ____ Atria only
B ____ Atria and Ventricles
C ____ Ventricles only
D ____ None of these
380) What chambers are contracted by the R wave?
A ____ Atria only
B ____ Atria and Ventricles
C ____ Ventricles only
D ____ None of these
381) This is a Point and Click question. Identify the Media button.
Identify the QRS wave.
382) This is a Point and Click question. Identify the Media button.
Identify the T wave.
383) This is a Point and Click question. Identify the Media button.
Identify the P wave.
384) In an EKG pattern, the P-Q interval indicates how long it takes for the cardiac impulse to travel from the
A ____ S-A node to the AV node
B ____ S-A node to the atrial muscle fibers
C ____ S-A node to the ventricular muscle fibers
D ____ A-V node to the atrial muscle fibers
385) This is a Point and Click question. Identify the Media button.
Identify the line that represents the P - R interval.
386) This is a Point and Click question. Identify the Media button.
Identify the line that represents the QRT interval.
387) This is a Point and Click question. Identify the Media button.
Identify the line that represents the P - R interval.
388) The correct sequence of parts that function to carry the electrical impulses is
A ____ Brain, S-A node, A-V node
B ____ Brain, A-V node, S-A node
C ____ Brain, A-V node, S-A node
D ____ S-A node, brain, A-V bundle
389) In an EKG pattern, the P wave is related to
A ____ contraction of atrial muscle fibers
B ____ relaxation of ventricular muscle fibers
C ____ relaxation of atrial muscle fibers
D ____ contraction of ventricular muscle fibers
390) In an EKG pattern, the T wave is caused by
A ____ recharging of atrial muscle fibers
B ____ recharging of ventricular muscle fibers
C ____ contraction of atrial muscle fibers
D ____ contraction of ventricular muscle fibers
391) In an EKG pattern, the P-Q interval indicates how long it takes for the cardiac impulse to travel from the
A ____ A-V node to the ventricular muscle fibers
B ____ S-A node to the atrial muscle fibers
C ____ S-A node to the ventricular muscle fibers
D ____ A-V node to the atrial muscle fibers
392) Which of the following might serve as a secondary pacemaker for the heart?
A ____ A-V node
B ____ Purkinje fibers
C ____ both A-V node and Purkinje fibers
D ____ neither A-V node nor Purkinje fibers
393) The normal pacemaker of the heart is the
A ____ Purkinje fibers
B ____ bundle of His
C ____ sinoatrial node
D ____ atrioventricular node
394) What part of the cardiac conduction system controls the atria?
A ____ SL Node
B ____ AV node
C ____ SA Node
D ____ EIEIO Node
395) Which chambers of the heart does the A-V node send impulses directly to?
A ____ Atria only
B ____ Atria and Ventricles
C ____ Ventricles only
D ____ None of these
396) What chambers are contracted by the R wave?
A ____ Atria only
B ____ Atria and Ventricles
C ____ Ventricles only
D ____ None of these
397) What is happening during the T wave?
A ____ Atria contract
B ____ Ventricles contract
C ____ AV node recharges
D ____ Heart does no activity
398) Impulses carried to the heart by means of the parasympathetic vagus nerve cause
A ____ the heart rate to increase
B ____ the heart rate to decrease
C ____ the BP to increase
D ____ none of these
399) Which of the following represents the correct sequence of parts through which blood moves in passing from the vena cava to the lungs?
A ____ right atrium, pulmonary valve, right ventricle, Rt AV valve
B ____ right atrium, Rt AV valve, right ventricle, pulmonary SL valve
C ____ tricuspid valve, right atrium, pulmonary SL valve, right ventricle
D ____ pulmonary valve, right atrium, Rt AV valve, right ventricle
400) When the ventricular walls contract,
A ____ the Right AV valve opens and the Left AV valve closes
B ____ the Left AV valve opens and the Right AV valve closes
C ____ the Right AV and Left AV valves close
D ____ the Right AV and Left AV valves open
401) The blood pressure in the arteries is greatest during
A ____ atrial systole
B ____ ventricular systole
C ____ ventricular diastole
D ____ atrial diastole
402) Which of the following actions would most likely result in a drop in blood pressure?
A ____ vasodialation
B ____ increased viscosity
C ____ physical exertion
D ____ vasoconstriction
403) The work of the heart moves the blood primarily by:
A ____ friction
B ____ peripheral resistance
C ____ anastamoses
D ____ pressure
404) Cardiac muscle cells do not need any instructions from the brain to cause each beat. This is called:
A ____ Involuntary
B ____ spontaneous
C ____ Synchronized
D ____ Independent
405) The name which describes your heart in a state of rest between contractions is:
A ____ diastole
B ____ systern
C ____ diatomaceous
D ____ systole
406) Systolic blood pressure is caused by
A ____ atrial contraction
B ____ ventricular contraction
C ____ atrial relaxation
D ____ ventricular relaxation
407) Which of the following actions would most likely result in a drop in blood pressure?
A ____ vasodialation
B ____ increased viscosity
C ____ physical exertion
D ____ vasoconstriction
408) Which of the following is not a normal result of training for endurance-type exercise?
A ____ decrease in resting heart rate
B ____ increase in stroke volume
C ____ increase in resting heart rate
D ____ Strengthening of myocardium (heart muscle)
409) The right atrium receives blood directly from
A ____ the superior vena cava and inferior vena cava only
B ____ the superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, and pulmonary veins
C ____ the pulmonary and coronary veins only
D ____ The right ventricle only
410) Cardiac muscle tissue is:
A ____ Voluntary and spontaneous
B ____ involuntary and spontaneous
C ____ synchronized and voluntary
411) Cardiac muscle tissue never fatigues because of:
A ____ Its large blood supply
B ____ Its large number of ribosomes
C ____ the brain limiting your exertion
412) The name which describes your heart in a state of contraction is:
A ____ diastole
B ____ systern
C ____ diatomaceous
D ____ systole
413) Cardiac muscle tissue is:
A ____ Voluntary
B ____ involuntary
C ____ immobile
414) When a person's pulse is taken by palpation near the thumb on the wrist, what artery is being felt?
A ____ The popliteal artery
B ____ the brachial artery
C ____ the ulnar artery
D ____ the radial artery
415) Which of the following is not a normal response to physical exercise?
A ____ increased blood flow to the heart muscle
B ____ increased blood flow to the skin
C ____ increased blood flow to the skeletal muscle
D ____ increased blood flow to the abdominal organs
416) Which of the following is not a normal result of training for endurance-type exercise?
A ____ decrease in resting heart rate
B ____ increase in stroke volume
C ____ increase in resting heart rate
D ____ Strengthening of myocardium (heart muscle)
417) Name one function of the lymphatic system.
A ____ Transport Oxygen
B ____ Help with immunity
C ____ Internal Lubrication
D ____ Lactation (milk production)
418) Which of the following supplies blood to the lungs?
A ____ pulmonary arteries
B ____ phrenic arteries
C ____ the superior mesenteric artery
D ____ lumbar arteries
419) When a person's pulse is taken by near the thumb on the wrist, what artery is being felt?
A ____ the corodit artery
B ____ the brachial artery
C ____ the ulnar artery
D ____ the radial artery
420) Which part of the circulatory system circulates a fluid that is not blood?
A ____ Pulmonary
B ____ lymphatic
C ____ Hepatic/portal
421) Which blood vessles allow the exchange of materials between the blood and tissues?
A ____ lymphatic vessles
B ____ Arteries
C ____ veins
D ____ capillaries
422) What is the term that refers to an artery getting larger in diameter to allow more blood to flow?
A ____ volumization
B ____ dialation
C ____ confluation
D ____ constriction
423) Sounds from the heart that are audible with a stethoscope are caused by
A ____ The contraction of the atria
B ____ Opening of the valves
C ____ closing of the valves
D ____ contracton of the ventricles
424) Arterial systolic pressure is caused by
A ____ atrial contraction
B ____ ventricular contraction
C ____ atrial relaxation
D ____ ventricular relaxation
425) Which of the following is not a normal result of training for endurance-type exercise?
A ____ enlargement of the heart
B ____ increase in stroke volume
C ____ increase in resting heart rate
D ____ decrease in resting heart rate
Identify a Monocyte.
427) Identify a Bacteria.
428) Identify the only cell that can identify AND kill an antigen.
429) Identify a B cell that has no specific instructions yet.
430) Identify a B cell that has already been given specific instructions.
431) Identify a Plasma Cell.
432) Identify an Antibody.
433) Identify a Helper T Cell.
434) Identify the type of cell that will eventually become a memory cell.
435) Identify a cell that can identify an antigen but cannot do anything to harm it.
436) Identify a cell that can be found only in the blood or tissues, but not in the thymus.
437) Identify something that makes pus.
438) Identify something that is only disigned to combat one specific antigen but seldom actually kills it.
439) Identify the only thing capable of getting a Killer T cells attention.
440) Identify something that is reporting
an invasion so that it can get help to fight it.
441) This is an Ordering question. Identify the answers in the order that they occur so that the correct numbers appear in the boxes.
Put these in the order that they happen.
A ____ B cells remember that antigen for the future.
B ____ Helper T cells are shown bacterial proteins.
C ____ Plasma cells begin producing antibodies.
D ____ Antibodies bind to antigen.
442) This is an Ordering question. Identify the answers in the order that they occur so that the correct numbers appear in the boxes.
Put these in the order that they happen.
A ____ Monocytes die trying to eat too many antigens.
B ____ One particular style of B cell recieves a recipe for producing antibodies.
C ____ Two days have passed.
D ____ Antigens are being destroyed in large numbers.
443) This is an Ordering question. Identify the answers in the order that they occur so that the correct numbers appear in the boxes.
Put these in the order that they happen.
A ____ Monocytes notice an antigen.
B ____ Plasma cells enter blood and begin making antibodies.
C ____ Killer T cells destroy the antigen.
D ____ Bacterial Proteins are delivered to the thymus.
444) This is an Ordering question. Identify the answers in the order that they occur so that the correct numbers appear in the boxes.
Put these in the order that they happen.
A ____ Monocytes wear antigen proteins.
B ____ Plasma cells stop antibody production and begin dying off.
C ____ Antigen proteins are delivered to the thymus.
D ____ Plasma cells leave the thymus.
(5) Blood Type and Transfusions
445) This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.
Which tube indicates if the person has a + or a - blood type?
446) This is a CheckBoxes question. There can be more than 1 right answer. Check the box for every correct answer.
Click the media button.
Which proteins does this person have on thier blood cells?
A ____ A
B ____ B
C ____ rh
D ____ O
E ____ None of these
447) This is a CheckBoxes question. There can be more than 1 right answer. Check the box for every correct answer.
Click the media button.
Which proteins does this person have on thier blood cells?
A ____ A
B ____ B
C ____ rh
D ____ O
E ____ None of these
448) This is a CheckBoxes question. There can be more than 1 right answer. Check the box for every correct answer.
Click the media button.
Which proteins does this person have on thier blood cells?
A ____ A
B ____ B
C ____ rh
D ____ O
E ____ None of these
449) This is a CheckBoxes question. There can be more than 1 right answer. Check the box for every correct answer.
Click the media button.
Which proteins does this person have on thier blood cells?
A ____ A
B ____ B
C ____ rh
D ____ O
E ____ None of these
450) This is a CheckBoxes question. There can be more than one correct answer. Check the box for all correct answers.
Click the Media button.
Check all of the types of blood this person can get.
A ____ A+
B ____ A-
C ____ B+
D ____ B-
E ____
F ____
G ____ O+
H ____ O-
451) This is a CheckBoxes question. There can be more than one correct answer. Check the box for all correct answers.
Click the Media button.
Check all of the types of blood this person can get.
A ____ A+
B ____ A-
C ____ B+
D ____ B-
E ____
F ____
G ____ O+
H ____ O-
452) This is a CheckBoxes question. There can be more than one correct answer. Check the box for all correct answers.
Click the Media button.
Check all of the types of blood this person can get.
A ____ A+
B ____ A-
C ____ B+
D ____ B-
E ____
F ____
G ____ O+
H ____ O-
453) This is a CheckBoxes question. There can be more than one correct answer. Check the box for all correct answers.
Click the Media button.
Check all of the types of blood this person can get.
A ____ A+
B ____ A-
C ____ B+
D ____ B-
E ____
F ____
G ____ O+
H ____ O-
454) This is a CheckBoxes question. There can be more than one correct answer. Check the box for all correct answers.
Check all of the types of blood than an
A ____ A+
B ____ A-
C ____ B+
D ____ B-
E ____
F ____
G ____ O+
H ____ O-
455) This is a CheckBoxes question. There can be more than one correct answer. Check the box for all correct answers.
Check all of the types of blood than an B+ person can get.
A ____ A+
B ____ A-
C ____ B+
D ____ B-
E ____
F ____
G ____ O+
H ____ O-
456) This is a CheckBoxes question. There can be more than one correct answer. Check the box for all correct answers.
Check all of the types of blood than an A+ person can get.
A ____ A+
B ____ A-
C ____ B+
D ____ B-
E ____
F ____
G ____ O+
H ____ O-
457) This is a CheckBoxes question. There can be more than one correct answer. Check the box for all correct answers.
Check all of the types of blood than an O- person can get.
A ____ A+
B ____ A-
C ____ B+
D ____ B-
E ____
F ____
G ____ O+
H ____ O-
458) This is a CheckBoxes question. There can be more than one correct answer. Check the box for all correct answers.
Check all of the types of blood than an
A ____ A+
B ____ A-
C ____ B+
D ____ B-
E ____
F ____
G ____ O+
H ____ O-
The Digestive System
459) what is the end product of the digestion done by salvivary amylase?
A ____ protiens
B ____ casiene
C ____ disacchardes
D ____ starch
460) This is a CheckBoxes question. There can be more than one answer.
Check all of the molecues that are small enough to be absorbed into the bloodstream.
A ____ Peptides
B ____ Amino Acids
C ____ Glycogen
D ____ Fatty Acid
461) Trypsin breaks down proteins into what molecule?
A ____ Glucose
B ____ The Loveboat season 1 DVD (I never liked that show.)
C ____ Nucleic acids
D ____ Peptides
462) Where is pepsin converted into amino acids so that it can be absorbed?
A ____ Large Intestine
B ____ Stomach
C ____ Small Intestine
D ____ Pancreas
463) What is the digested product of lipids that are small enough to be absorbed?
A ____ Fatty Acids & Glycerol
B ____ Monosaccharides & Peptides
C ____ Amino Acids & Glycerol
D ____ Peptides & Amino Acids
464) What is the function of the bile released by the liver?
A ____ Activating enzymes in the stomach
B ____ Emulsification
C ____ Breaking down proteins into peptides
D ____ Sterilizing food
465) What is the function of bile?
A ____ Activate enzymes
B ____ All of the above
C ____ Sterilize enzymes
D ____ Break up fat
466) Which of the following are molecules that contribute to blood sugar?
A ____ Maltose
B ____ Lactose
C ____ Glucose
D ____ Sucrose
467) Which of these enzymes all digest protein?
A ____ amylolytic amylase, rennin, trypsin
B ____ pepsin, maltase, peptidase
C ____ nuclease, sucrase, gastric lipase
D ____ carboxypolypeptidease, pepsin, trypsin
468) Which is the end product made by the actions of lipolytic enzyme from the pancreas?
A ____ Peptides
B ____ Nucleotides
C ____ Dissacchorides
D ____ Fatty acid and glycerol
469) Which of the following enzymes can break down nutrients completely (small enough to be absorbed) in only one step?
A ____ Lypolytic Enzyme
B ____ Nuclease
C ____ Amolytic Amylase
D ____ Rennin
470) What makes something organic?
A ____ Must have both Carbon and Hydrogen atoms.
B ____ Made on a farm with no harmful chemicals.
C ____ Has carbon atoms.
D ____ Is a living organism.
471) What monosaccharide is preferred by our bodies for respiration?
A ____ Xylose
B ____ Glucose
C ____ Galactose
D ____ Fructose
472) What vitamin is essential for the production of collagen?
A ____ D
B ____ C
C ____ K
D ____ B-12
473) Where are most minerals stored in your body?
A ____ kidneys
B ____ stomach
C ____ bones and teeth
D ____ arms
474) Which chemical element is present in proteins that is absent in lipids and carbohydrates?
A ____ nitrogen
B ____ lipids
C ____ amino acids
D ____ glucose
475) Which of these has the most calories?
A ____ Polysaccharides
B ____ Water
C ____ Monosaccharides
D ____ Disaccharides
476) Why is water considered a nutrient?
A ____ it quenches your thirst
B ____ gives you strong bones
C ____ Water is needed regularly
D ____ keeps you hydrated
477) All carbohydrates are made up of what units?
A ____ nucleotides
B ____ fatty acids / glycerol
C ____ monosaccharides
D ____ amino acids
478) This is a CheckBoxes question. There is more than one possible answer.
Which of these are polysaccharides that you CAN digest?
A ____ Cellulose
B ____ Glycogen
C ____ Starch
D ____ Sucrose
479) How does the body use Iron?
A ____ production of hemoglobin
B ____ synthesis of thyroid glands
C ____ contraction of blood coagulation
D ____ important role in metabolic reactions
480) How many essential amino acids are there in an adult?
A ____ 8
B ____ 6
C ____ 10
D ____ 2
481) Based on what you know about digestion, which carbohydrate below would contain the fewest calories?
A ____ Glucose
B ____ Starch
C ____ Fructose
D ____ Cellulose
482) Scurvy is a lack of which vitamin?
A ____ Vitamin B12
B ____ Vitamin Awesome
C ____ Vitamin A
D ____ Vitamin C
483) What are the sub units of proteins?
A ____ disaccharides
B ____ monosaccarides
C ____ nitrogen
D ____ amino acids
484) What are the two uses of lipids in the body?
A ____ give off oxygen and swallow foods
B ____ store energy and build cells
C ____ store fat and destroy cells
D ____ kill blood cells and store energy
485) What disease does Vitamin K protect you from?
A ____ Cancer
B ____ Scurvy
C ____ Parkinson's Disease
D ____ Bleeding Disorders
486) What does one of you cells use glucose for?
A ____ Production of collagen
B ____ Dancing
C ____ Carry oxygen
D ____ Cellular Respiration
487) This is a CheckBoxes question. There can be more than 1 correct answer. Check all that apply.
What does Vitamin A help your body build and maintain?
A ____ bones
B ____ skin
C ____ retina
D ____ teeth
488) This is a CheckBoxes question. There can be more than 1 correct answer. Check all that apply.
What does calcium help your body build and maintain?
A ____ retina
B ____ teeth
C ____ skin
D ____ bones
489) What is a example of a Polysaccaride?
A ____ Glucose
B ____ Plant Starch
C ____ Glycerol
D ____ Amino Acids
490) Which of these is something that the mineral potassium used for?
A ____ Muscle Development
B ____ Nerve Function
C ____ Bone Growth
D ____ Thyroid hormone production
491) Which of these is something that the mineral iodine used for?
A ____ Muscle Development
B ____ Thyroid hormone production
C ____ Nerve Function
D ____ Bone Growth
492) Which of these is something that the mineral phosphorus used for?
A ____ Bone Growth
B ____ Nerve Function
C ____ Thyroid hormone production
D ____ Metabolic reactions
493) What is a natural sources of saturated fats?
A ____ Plants
B ____ Veggie Oil
C ____ Animal Meat
D ____ Starch
494) What isn't a common disaccharide?
A ____ maltose
B ____ fructose
C ____ lactose
D ____ sucrose
495) Amyloytic Amylase breaks down what into disaccharide?
A ____ Starch only
B ____ Proteins
C ____ Starch and Glycogen
D ____ Monosaccharides
496) How is your chewing different from a dogs?
A ____ We can move our jaws side to side
B ____ Nothing we chew the same
C ____ Because we're superior
D ____ Dogs have bigger mouths and we don't
497) How long does it take food to digest in the small intestine?
A ____ 3-4 hours
B ____ 12-24 hours
C ____ 10-12 hours
D ____ 5-6 hours
498) In the small intestine, where are the most digestive enzymes secreted?
A ____ In the jejumum
B ____ At the Pyloric Spyncter
C ____ At the Spyncter of Oti in the Duodenum
D ____ In the Illium
499) Peristalsis is…
A ____ The secretion of bile in the liver and its path through the common bile duct
B ____ The best Foreign Film Award winner in 2002
C ____ The act of chemical digestion in the stomach
D ____ The forward of motion of food through the digestive system
500) What is rhythmic segmentation?
A ____ backs up of food in the small intestine
B ____ pinching movement of chyme back and forth in the small intestine
C ____ forward movement of food in the small intestine
D ____ thorwing up food from the small intestine
501) What is the correct word for a swallow
A ____ Bolus
B ____ Feces
C ____ Amylase
D ____ Mastication
502) What is the meaning of Chyme?
A ____ "a swallow"
B ____ its another word for Bolus
C ____ chewing
D ____ food/gastric juice mixture
503) What protects your esophagus when you are about to vomit?
A ____ amino acids
B ____ saliva
C ____ mucus
D ____ chyme
504) What is typically the main physical difference between a bolus and chyme?
A ____ organ placement
B ____ chime is full of stomach fluids
C ____ bolus is a solid but chime is a liquid
D ____ bolus is in the stomach chime is in the colon
505) Which mineral is most widely used for metabolism in your cells?
A ____ calcium
B ____ iodine
C ____ potassium
D ____ phosphorus
506) which of the following two make the color of poo?
A ____ bilirubin, biliverdin
B ____ carb, bilirubin
C ____ mucus, chyme
D ____ bile, diarrhea
507) What serves as a link between the mouth and the stomach?
A ____ The Esophagus
B ____ The Common Bile Duct
C ____ The Larynx
D ____ The Eppiglottis
508) Which of these is not one of the regions of the pharynx?
A ____ Senopharynx
B ____ Laryngiopharynx
C ____ Oropharynx
D ____ Nasopharynx
509) Check all of the functions of Goblet Cells.
A ____ Mucus Production
B ____ Absorption of Nutrients into the Blood
C ____ Protection of Stomach from Acids
D ____ Production of Digestive Enzymes
510) Mastication is the process of what?
A ____ chewing
B ____ spitting
C ____ puking
D ____ swallowing
511) Name the 3 sections of the small intestine.
A ____ nasopharynx, pharynx, esophagus
B ____ goblet cells, circular muscle, mucosa
C ____ palate, villi, serosa
D ____ duodenum, jejunum, ilium
512) Name the phase of digestion that reduces food into smaller pieces of the same material.
A ____ Absorption
B ____ Mechanical
C ____ Chemical
D ____ Egestion
513) This is an Ordering question.
Put these organs in the order that they are used in the digestive process.
A ____ Stomach
B ____ Sigmoid
C ____ Pancreas
D ____ Esophagus
514) What is another name for the material as you are swallowing it.
A ____ bolus
B ____ mastication
C ____ degulation
D ____ chyme
515) What is the process that alters the molecules of the food you have eaten?
A ____ Absorption
B ____ Egestion
C ____ Mechanical
D ____ Chemical
516) What tissue is the mouth lined with?
A ____ Stratified Squamous
B ____ Simple Squamous
C ____ mastication
D ____ Connection Muscle
517) What tissue is the mucosa of the stomach made out of?
A ____ simple squamous
B ____ mucus
C ____ simple columnar
D ____ smooth muscle
518) What is the name of the "punching bag" structure that blocks your nose when you swallow?
A ____ Lips
B ____ Uvula
C ____ Palate
D ____ Ova
519) What is the name of the process of breaking down food with your teeth?
A ____ Mastication
B ____ Salivation
C ____ Deglutation
D ____ Chewing
520) What is the function of the pyloric sphincher?
A ____ opens when you vomit
B ____ Produces gastric secretions
C ____ Produces insulin
D ____ Opens when food enters duodenum
521) what kind of acid is held in the stomach?
A ____ Sulfuric
B ____ amino acid
C ____ none of they above
D ____ Hydrochloric
522) What is a function of the acid in your stomach?
A ____ Block absorption of Alcohol
B ____ Digest Lipids
C ____ Activate Enzymes
D ____ Emulsify Fats
523) Where does your body perform the first digestion of what you eat?
A ____ Mouth
B ____ Esophagus
C ____ Large Intestine
D ____ Stomach
524) Which of the following phases of digestion happens first?
A ____ chemical - enzymes break large molecules into small molecules.
B ____ Absorption- passage of digested food from lumen to blood in submucosa.
C ____ Mechanical- breaking large chunks to small ones.
D ____ egestion- removal of undigested food.
525) Which of these allow your mucosa to stretch?
A ____ rugae
B ____ goblet cells
C ____ submucosa
D ____ serosa
526) Which of these is a source of unsaturated fat?
A ____ steak
B ____ almonds
C ____ chicken
D ____ peanuts
527) Identify the Pharynx.
528) This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.
Identify the esophagus.
529) This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.
Identify the stomach.
530) This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.
Identify the liver.
531) This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.
Identify the common bile duct.
532) This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.
Identify the Pancreatic Duct.
533) This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.
Identify the gall bladder.
534) This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.
Identify the pancreas.
535) This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.
Identify the small intestine.
536) This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.
Identify the Ascending
537) This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.
Identify the Transverse Colon.
538) This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.
Identify the Decending Colon.
539) This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.
Identify the Sigmoid Colon.
540) This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.
Identify the Rectum.
541) This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.
Identify a salavary gland.
542) This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.
Identify the Cecum.
543) This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.
Identify the Appendix.
544) This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.
Identify the arteriole.
545) This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.
Identify the Duodenum.
546) This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.
Identify the Jejunum.
547) This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.
Identify the
548) This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.
Identify the venule.
549) This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.
Identify the lacteal.
550) This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.
Identify the lymphatic vessle.
551) This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.
Identify the columnar cells.
552) This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.
In the "Stairlike region", Identify the Longitudinal Muscle.
553) This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.
In the "Stairlike region", Identify the Circular Muscle.
554) This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.
In the "Stairlike region", Identify the Oblique Muscle.
555) This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.
In the "Stairlike region", Identify the Submucosa.
556) This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.
Identify the mucosa.
557) This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.
Identify the Pyloric Sphyncter.
558) This is a Point and Click question. You must include an image.
Identify the Duodenum.
The Endocrine System
81) (Hypothalamus) Which hormone stops the process of lactation?
A ____ Lutenizing Hormone (LH)
B ____ Vasopressin (ADH)
C ____ LOL
D ____ Prolactin Inhibiting Hormone (PIH)
82) (Hypothalamus) Where are the gonads located?
A ____ In the pelvic cavity
B ____ In the thoracic cavity.
C ____ In your brain
D ____ In the abdominal cavity
83) (Hypothalamus) What is the main purpose of the hypothalamus?
A ____ it tells the other endocrine organs when to do what they were made to do
B ____ makes hair grow
C ____ increases blood pressure
D ____ determines whether you're a boy or girl
84) (Hypothalamus) What does the vasopressin do?
A ____ increases energy level
B ____ all of the above
C ____ body temp contol
D ____ regulates blood pressure
85) (Hypothalamus) What does Oxytocin cause?
A ____ Ovulation
B ____ Sex drive
C ____ urerine contractions, lactation
D ____ menstruation
86) (Hypothalamus) what does Prolactin Inhibiting Hormone (PIH) cause?
A ____ stimulates production of sperm
B ____ stimulates testosterone production by the testes
C ____ stimulates lactation
D ____ prevents lactation in new mothers
87) (Hypothalamus) What is the effect does Prolactin Inhibiting Hormone (PIH)cause in the body?
A ____ Removes excess water from blood
B ____ increase metabolic rate
C ____ Stops Lactation
D ____ Uterine contractions
88) (Hypothalamus) What is a term that best describes the hypothalamus?
A ____ Pitutiary
B ____ sugar regulator
C ____ reproductive control
D ____ Master control
89) (Hypothalamus) Check the box with the horomone that is NOT made by the hypothalamus.
A ____ Lutenizing Hormone (LH)- Lutenizing Horomone
B ____ Vasopressin (ADH)-Vasopression
C ____ Prolactin Inhibiting Hormone (PIH)- Prolactic Inhibiting Horomone
D ____ Corticotropin Releasing Hormone (CRH)- Corticotropin Releasesing Horomone
90) (Hypothalamus) This is a Point and Click question. You must click the "Media" button.
Where is the Hypothalamus?
91) (ovaries) What are the primary sex chracteristics of a female?
A ____ ovaries, uterus, and vagina
B ____ penis and testes
C ____ toes, and fingers
D ____ low blood pressure
92) (ovaries) What are the secondary sex chracteristics of a female?
A ____ high pitch voice, less body hair, more feminine features
B ____ more body hair, lower pitch voice, more muscle mass
C ____ fingers and toes
D ____
93) (ovaries) What effect does the hormone progesterone have on the female body?
A ____ causes secondary and primary sex characteristics in females
B ____ creates the sex drive
C ____ causes primary and secondary sex characteristics in males
D ____ Causes changes involved with the menstrual cycle.
94) (ovaries) estrogen causes which of the following primary sex characteristics in females?
A ____ ovaries
B ____ breast development
C ____ lack of hair
D ____ thicker body fat under the skin
95) (ovaries) Estrogen causes what?
A ____ Estrogen casues primary and secondary sex char. in females.
B ____ Estrogen casues wemon to be completely insane.
C ____ Estrogen casuses primary and secondary sex char. in males
D ____ Estrogen causes a raise in glucagon.
96) (ovaries) This is a Point and Click question. You must Identify "Media".
Identify the ovaries.
97) (Pancreas) How would your levels of insulin or glucagon change in the hours after pancakes and bacon?
A ____ Increased insulin
B ____ Decreased glucagon
C ____ decreased insulin
D ____ No change in either
98) (Pancreas) If a person is diagnosed with diabetes, their body has trouble producing which hormone?
A ____ thyroxin
B ____ glucagon
C ____ insulin
D ____ melatonin
99) (Pancreas) What effect of the pancreas increases the use of blood sugar by cells ( how they spend it )?
A ____ insulin
B ____ minsulin
C ____ glucagon
D ____ rat girl
100) (Pancreas) What is produced in the pancreas?
A ____ insulin
B ____ Glucagon
C ____ Insulin and Glucagon
D ____ energy
101) (Pancreas) Insulin does which of the following?
A ____ lowers blood glucose by stimulating glucose uptake cells
B ____ is a secondary sex characteristic in a female
C ____ responsible for male libdo
D ____ increases metabolic rate throughout body
102) (Pancreas) What triggers the hormone release in the Pancreas?
A ____ Blood Sugar Level
B ____ Hypothalamus
C ____ Fear, Surprise
D ____ Blood Calcuim Level
103) (Pancreas) What is the function of Glucagon?
A ____ Increases release of blood sugar from glucogen in liver
B ____ Decreases storage of blood sugar as fat
C ____ The same thing insulin does
D ____ It doesn't involve blood sugar.
104) (Pancreas) Which of the following increases the use of blood sugar by cells?
A ____ Insulin
B ____ Glucagon
C ____ None of the above
D ____ Both A and B
105) (Pancreas) Which hormone in the Pancreas controls blood calcium levels?
A ____ calcitonin
B ____ thyroxin
C ____ glucagon
D ____ none of these do
106) (Pancreas) Which of the following pairs of hormones work together to increase and lower blood sugar levels in the pancreus?
A ____ insulin and glucoseamine
B ____ melatonin and aldosterone
C ____ estrogen and testosterone
D ____ glucagon and insulin
107) (Pancreas) Insulin controls the blood sugar level by
A ____ Taking glucose out of the blood.
B ____ storing glucose.
C ____ cockroaches
D ____ making calcium
108) (Pancreas) what triggers glucagon
A ____ decrease in blood pressure
B ____ blood calcium
C ____ fear
D ____ stress
E ____ low blood sugar levels
109) (Pancreas) This is a Point and Click question. You must Identify "Media".
Identify the pancreas.
110) (Parathyroid) Your parathyroid regulates and works with which substance?
A ____ Phospherus
B ____ Iron
C ____ Potassium
D ____ Calcium
111) (Parathyroid) Parathyroid Hormone (PTH) causes what element to be stored from blood into bones
A ____ Potassium
B ____ Phosphorus
C ____ Calcium
D ____ Carbon
112) (Parathyroid) What is the effect of Parathyroid in the body?
A ____ causes more Ca to be removed from bones to blood
B ____ increase use of blood sugar
C ____ increase metabolic rate throughout body
D ____ causes more Ca to be removed from blood to bones
113) This is a Point and Click question. You must click the "Media" button.
Where is the Parathyroid?
114) (Pineal) If you are feeling tired or sleepy, your are experencing thr effects of what hormone?
A ____ insulin
B ____ melatonin
C ____ calcitonin
D ____ estrogen
115) (Pineal) Melatonin causes the feeling of….
A ____ Stress
B ____ Sleepiness
C ____ Anger
D ____ Joy
116) (Pineal) In the Pineal what hormone causes the feeling of sleep
A ____ insulin
B ____ melatonin
C ____ cortisol
D ____ estrogen
117) (Pineal) You body temperature is increased by which hormone
A ____ Thyrotropin (TSH)
B ____ Prolactin Inhibiting Hormone (PIH)
C ____ Thyrotropin Releasing Hormone (TRH)
D ____ Vasopressin (ADH)
118) (Pineal) Circadian Rhythm is caused by which of the following hormone?
A ____ Cortisole
B ____ Norman E. Pinephrine
C ____ Thyrotropin
D ____ Melatonin
119) (Pineal) This is a Point and Click question. You must click the "Media" button.
Where is the Pineal Gland?
120) (Pituitary) Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) stimulates the production of what?
A ____ Corticotropin Releasing Hormone (ACTH)
B ____ Female Egg
C ____ Males muscle
D ____ Prolactin
121) (Pituitary) Changes in light levels triggers the release of what?
A ____ Adrenaline
B ____ Melatonin
C ____ The dogs
D ____ Melanin
122) (Pituitary) Feelin frisky? What do you suppose just got released into your system?
A ____ Melatonin
B ____ Antigens
C ____ Insulin
D ____ Androgens
123) (Pituitary) What does Thyrtropin do?
A ____ controls your metabolism and body tempature
B ____ testorone
C ____ blood pressure
D ____ energy level
124) (Pituitary) What is the effect of Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) in females?
A ____ Increased metabolic rate and body temperature
B ____ Egg Production
C ____ Ovulation
D ____ Sperm Maturation
125) (Pituitary) Which of the following hormones is NOT used in the Pituitary?
A ____ Corticotropin Releasing Hormone (ACTH)
B ____ Lutenizing Hormone (LH)
C ____ Thyrotropin (TSH)
D ____ CRB
126) (Pituitary) Which one(s) are not Pituitary hormones?
A ____ Vasopressin (ADH)
B ____ Lutenizing Hormone (LH)
C ____ Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
D ____ Thyrotropin (TSH)
127) (Pituitary) This is a Point and Click question. You must click the "Media" button.
Where is the Pituitary?
128) (Testes) Testosterone is present in __________.
A ____ males
B ____ females
C ____ neither
D ____ both, but is dominant in males.
129) (Testes) What causes the primary and secondary sex characteristics in males?
A ____ TESTOSTERONE
B ____ RICKY
C ____ PROGESTERONE
D ____ SUGAR
130) (Testes) How many testes are there in the body?
A ____ 2
B ____ 1
C ____ 3
D ____ 0
131) (Testes) What triggers the release of the hormones in the Testes?
A ____ Instructions from the pituitary and hypothalamus
B ____ Instructions from the hypothalamus
C ____ Instructions from the pituitary
D ____ Fear, surprise
132) (Testes) What are secondary effects of testosterone?
A ____ Muscle growth, hair growth and deep voice
B ____ High pitched voice
C ____ Less body hair
D ____ Penis
133) (Testes) What effect does testosterone have on the body?
A ____ Causes primary and secondary sex characterstics in males
B ____ increases metaboilc rates throughout the body
C ____ triggers puberty and increases sex drive
D ____ Both A and C
E ____ 0
134) (Testes) This is a Point and Click question. You must Identify "Media".
Identify the testes.
135) (thyroid) The release of calcitonin causes which effect on the body?
A ____ causes more CA to be removed from bones into blood
B ____ increases use of blood sugar by cells
C ____ causes more CA to be stored from blood into the bones
D ____ increase of metabolic rate throughout the body
136) (thyroid) What does thyroxin do throughout your body?
A ____ Helps your eyesight
B ____ Increases your metabolism
C ____ Increases the absorbtion rate of nutrients throught villi.
D ____ Increases efficiency of digestive system
137) (thyroid) What causes the increase in the metabolic rate throughout the body
A ____ THYROXIN
B ____ CORTISOL
C ____ CALCITONIN
D ____ Thallium
138) (thyroid) What effect does the hormone Thyroxin have?
A ____ Causes more calcium to be stroed from blood into bones
B ____ Incrases the metabolic rate throughout the body
C ____ Decreases the metabolic rate throughout the body
D ____ Does not effect the metabolic rate throughout the body
139) (thyroid) What are the hormones that are secreted from the thyroid?
A ____ both Calcitonin and Thyroxin
B ____ none of these
C ____ thyroxin
D ____ Calcitonin
140) (thyroid) Which hormone causes more calcium to be stored from blood to bones?
A ____ thyroxin
B ____ calcitonin
C ____ Corticotropin Releasing Hormone (CRH)
D ____ insulin
141) This is a Point and Click question. You must click the "Media" button.
Where is the Thyroid?
142) (thyroid) The release of calcitonin causes which effect on the body?
A ____ causes more CA to be stored from blood into the bones
B ____ increases use of blood sugar by cells
C ____ increase of metabolic rate throughout the body
D ____ causes more CA to be removed from bones into blood
143) (thyroid) What does thyroxin do throughout your body?
A ____ Increases efficiency of digestive system
B ____ Increases your metabolism
C ____ Increases the absorbtion rate of nutrients throught villi.
D ____ Helps your eyesight
144) (thyroid) What causes the increase in the metabolic rate throughout the body
A ____ CORTISOL
B ____ THYROXIN
C ____ CALCITONIN
D ____ Thallium
145) (thyroid) What effect does the hormone Thyroxin have?
A ____ Causes more calcium to be stroed from blood into bones
B ____ Incrases the metabolic rate throughout the body
C ____ Decreases the metabolic rate throughout the body
D ____ Does not effect the metabolic rate throughout the body
146) (thyroid) What are the hormones that are secreted from the thyroid?
A ____ none of these
B ____ thyroxin
C ____ Calcitonin
D ____ both Calcitonin and Thyroxin
147) (thyroid) Which hormone causes more calcium to be stored from blood to bones?
A ____ thyroxin
B ____ insulin
C ____ calcitonin
D ____ Corticotropin Releasing Hormone (CRH)
148) (Adrenal) One of the effects of the adrenal gland are ?
A ____ Alterness
B ____ Increased energy levels in muscles. "fight or flight"
C ____ Increases sex drive
D ____ all of theses
149) (Adrenal) The adrenal gland is controlled by which of the following?
A ____ Pituitary
B ____ Hypothalmus
C ____ Pineal gland
D ____ Brain
150) (Adrenal) What is the primary fight or flight hormone?
A ____ cortasol
B ____ epinephrine
C ____ aldosdron
D ____ androgens
151) (Adrenal) Androgens do which of the following?
A ____ Triggers puberty and increases your sex drive
B ____ increases alertness and contributes to anger in high levels
C ____ causes feelings of sleep
D ____ causes primary and secondary female sex characteristics
152) (Adrenal) Which of these hormones is secreted from the adrenal gland?
A ____ corisol
B ____ melatonin
C ____ estrogen
D ____ calcitonin
153) (Adrenal) What is the function of the epinephrine hormone?
A ____ "fight or flight" response
B ____ increased cell growth and repair
C ____ increased use of blood sugar by cells
D ____ triggering puberty
154) (Adrenal) What does adolsterone do?
A ____ Both responsible for female secondary charactersitics and an increase in cell growth.
B ____ Increase in cell growth & repair
C ____ Triggers puberty
D ____ Causes primary and seconady sex characteristis in females.
155) (Adrenal) Out of all the hormones in the adreanal gland, which one wakes you up?
A ____ Androgens
B ____ Epinephrine
C ____ Cortisol
D ____ Epinephrine
156) (Adrenal) cortisol increases...
A ____ alertness
B ____ anger levels
C ____ energy
D ____ hunger
157) (Adrenal) What triggers epinephrine?
A ____ fear and surprise
B ____ Instructions from pituitary and hypothalamus
C ____ light level stress
D ____ Increase in blood calcium level
158) (Adrenal )This is a Point and Click question. You must Identify "Media".
Identify the Adrenal glands.
The Excretory System
159) What is the basic functional unit of the kidney?
A ____ renal pelvis
B ____ nephron
C ____ alveolus
D ____ renal pyramid
160) Which of these is not a function of the kidneys?
A ____ The kidneys regulate the composition, volume, and pH of body fluids.
B ____ The kidneys deactivate vitamin D and stimulate the activity of osteoclasts.
C ____ The kidneys help to regulate blood pressure.
D ____ The kidneys help control the rate of red blood cell production.
161) The outermost covering of the kidney is the _____.
A ____ cortex
B ____ medulla
C ____ pelvis
D ____ capsule
162) Which structure is the first to collect the urine?
A ____ ureter
B ____ calyx
C ____ pelvis
D ____ urethra
163) The renal pyramids are located within the _____.
A ____ medulla
B ____ pelvis
C ____ cortex
D ____ column
164) The striated appearance of the pyramids is caused by _____.
A ____ parallel blood vessels
B ____ nerve fibers
C ____ connective tissue
D ____ microtubules
165) The pyramids are areas located within the _____ of the kidney.
A ____ cortex
B ____ medulla
C ____ pelvis
D ____ capsule
166) The outermost structure of a kidney is the _____.
A ____ cortex
B ____ capsule
C ____ pelvis
D ____ medulla
167) Identify the Cortex.
168) Click anywhere within the Medulla.
169) Identify the Renal Pelvis.
170) Identify one of the Renal Columns.
171) Identify one of the Ureter.
172) Identify one of the Renal Pyramids.
173) Identify a Pelvic Sinus.
(8) Nephron Structure and Function
174) What is the function of the nephron?
A ____ regulate blood pressure
B ____ all of these
C ____ maintain blood pH
D ____ control blood concentration
175) Which structure monitors and regulates blood pressure in the Glomerulus?
A ____ Juxtaglomerular apparatus
B ____ Golgi apparatus
C ____ Renal Artery
D ____ Loop of Henle
176) Which of the following are not found in the fluid filtered in the glomerulus?
A ____ urea
B ____ glucose
C ____ protein
D ____ hemoglobin
177) Most reabsorption of water back into the blood occurs in the ____________.
A ____ Renal Pelvis
B ____ Distal Convaluted Tubule (DCT)
C ____ Decending Loop of Henle
D ____ Glomerulus
178) Most tubular reabsorption of salt back into the blood occurs at the _____.
A ____ Ascending Loop of Henle
B ____ distal convoluted tubule (DCT)
C ____ proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)
D ____ glomerulus
179) The reabsorption of which of the following occurrs by active transport in the Proximal Convaluted Tubule (PCT)?
A ____ acids and bases
B ____ albumin
C ____ amino acids
D ____ Water
180) Which of these is not usually secreted by the kidneys?
A ____ glucose
B ____ salt
C ____ penicillin
D ____ H+
181) Most small proteins are reabsorbed by _______________.
A ____ osmosis
B ____ diffusion
C ____ Ity Bitty Sponges
D ____ active transport
182) Where does diffusion of H+ into the tubules help control blood pH?
A ____ glomerulus
B ____ distal convoluted tubule
C ____ loop of Henle
D ____ proximal convoluted tubule
183) Which muscle metabolism waste product is eliminated by the kidneys and gives the final excreted fluid it's name?
A ____ water
B ____ urea
C ____ glucose
D ____ amino acid
184) Which ion is reabsorbed in exchange for sodium (salt)?
A ____ calcium
B ____ chloride
C ____ magnesium
D ____ potassium
185) Put these in the order that they travel in the kidney.
A ____ glomerulus
B ____ collecting tubule
C ____ decending loop of Henle
D ____ bloodstream
186) Identify the place where the waste leaves your bloodstream.
187) Identify the place where nutrients like glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed into your blood.
188) Identify the tubule where only water is being removed from the filtrate (filtered waste).
189) Identify the region where your kidneys adjust the pH of your blood so that it is not too acidic.
190) Identify the region where nothing but salt is being actively transported back into the blood.
191) Which section of the nephron is after the ascending limb of the loop of Henle?
A ____ distal convoluted tubule
B ____ collecting duct
C ____ descending limb of the loop
D ____ proximal convoluted tubule
192) The last part of a nephron is the _____.
A ____ renal papilla
B ____ glomerulus
C ____ collecting duct
D ____ distal convoluted tubule
193) Choose the one trait that does not characterize the structure of a nephron.
A ____ Blood that will be filtered flows into the glomerular capsule.
B ____ There are two coiled portions of the renal tubule that filter blood before it enters the Glomerulus.
C ____ The glomerular blood vessels contain holes and slits to increase filtration.
D ____ Blood is stripped of both nutrients and waste, then nutrients are reabsorbed.
194) The structure which receives the filtrate from the glomerulus is the _____.
A ____ distal convoluted tubule
B ____ proximal convoluted tubule
C ____ loop of Henle
D ____ Bowman capsule
195) In which area can the term urine be correctly used?
A ____ nephron
B ____ loop of Henle
C ____ Bowman's capsule
D ____ collecting duct
196) Identify the Bowman's Capsule.
197) Identify the Proximal Convoluted Tubule.
198) Identify the Decending Loop of Henle.
199) Identify the Acending Loop of Henle.
200) Identify the Distal Convoluted Tubule.
201) Identify the Collecting Duct.
202) The mucosa (lining) of the bladder is comprised of _____.
A ____ squamous epithelium
B ____ smooth muscle
C ____ simple columnar epithelium
D ____ transitional epithelium
203) The ureter directly receives urine from the _____ of the kidney.
A ____ cortex
B ____ medulla
C ____ pelvis
D ____ pyramid
Embryology
1) In the first few months, the infant ____________ unknown people
A ____ developes fear of
B ____ cannot distinguish known from
C ____ has no concept of
D ____ is interested and curious about
2) At around 7 months the baby can ____________.
A ____ understand that things exist even when not seen
B ____ play simple games
C ____ roll from stomach to back
D ____ lift it's head while lying on its stomach
3) They _____________ and explore new things in their environment
A ____ examine things by looking at them
B ____ put things in their mouths
C ____ become disinterested in people
4) By the end of the first year, babies ___________.
A ____ are beginning to crawl but almost never walk
B ____ will often be walking.
C ____ have been successfully walking for months.
D ____ are still physically unable to walk.
5) They begin to become self aware and develop object consistancy, meaning that _______________.
A ____ things in their surroundings are always disappearing and reappearing
B ____ that parents can be counted on to provide things like food
C ____ they recognize themselves in a mirror.
D ____ they understand that objects exist even when not visible
6) __________ and memory strenghtens as a primary method of learning.
A ____ Drawing
B ____ Listening
C ____ Speech
D ____ Imitation
7) In the 5th month the baby begins teething, which is _________.
A ____ The growth of teeth through the gums
B ____ The hardening of the gums into baby teeth
8) Put these skills in the order they ocurr:
A ____ Sitting upright unassisted
B ____ Pulling themselves to a standing position
C ____ crawling on all 4s
D ____ Rolling from stomach to back
9) There are ____ stages of Labor & ____ stage of Delivery
A ____ 1 / 3
B ____ 1 / 2
C ____ 3 / 1
D ____ 3 / 3
10) "___________": Contractions Begin. Cervix begins dialating / effacing. Braxton Hicks contractions.
A ____ Active Labor
B ____ Delivery
C ____ Transition Phase
D ____ Early Labor
11) "_____________" the mother's water breaks, contractions are Stronger. Cervix mostly dialated / effaced.
A ____ Active Labor
B ____ Delivery
C ____ Transition Phase
D ____ Early Labor
12) Phase three-"__________" is the most challenging and painful phase. This is when the baby is delivered.
A ____ Active Labor
B ____ Transition Phase
C ____ Delivery
D ____ Early Labor
13) Signs of the beginning of labor include: The baby drops, more __________ contractions, cervix begins to ripen, pass your mucus plug or notice "bloody show", her ____________.
A ____ Braxton Hicks / water breaks
B ____ Transitional / cervix fully dialates
C ____ gentile / morning sickness returns
D ____ irregular / baby crowns
14) The ____________ is the last stage of the entire process of Labor and Delivery. The mother will once again have to push. Bleeding, chills and exhaustion may occur.
A ____ birth of the baby
B ____ expulsion of the placenta
C ____ rupturing of the membranes
D ____ dialation of the cervix
15) ____________ is when the baby is not positioned normally to be delivered.
A ____ Abruption
B ____ Breech
C ____ Placenta previa
D ____ Incompetent cervix
16) __________ is when the baby accidentally passes its first bowel movement while still in the womb
A ____ Amniotic fouling
B ____ Fetal meconium
C ____ Vernix caseosa
D ____ Poops oops
17) ____________ is where the placenta blocks the cervix and prevents a normal birth.
A ____ Placental Abruption
B ____ Breech
C ____ Incompetent cervix
D ____ Placenta previa
18) __________ is a birth defect that causes incomplete formation of the upper lip (if severe the roof of your mouth)
A ____ Club palate
B ____ Binary Folding Syndrome
C ____ Encephalia
D ____ Cleft Lip
19) A Fetal Monitor is used to watch the babies ________ during labor.
A ____ respiration rate
B ____ moulding of the cranial bones
C ____ position in the uterus
D ____ heart rate
20) An ________ is injected into women's ________ during labor which causes a loss of sensation & loss of pain
A ____ endometrial / Spinal cord
B ____ epidural / vein
C ____ Epidural / Spinal cord
D ____ opiate / vein
21) A C - section is delivery of the baby through surgical incision in the mother's ____________.
A ____ diaphragm
B ____ ovaries and fallopian tubes
C ____ abdomen and uterus
D ____ vagina and cervix
22) One advantage of an epidural is ___________.
A ____ decreases the intensity of labor contractions
B ____ dialates the cervix more to make birth less painful.
C ____ speeds up labor making birth happen faster
D ____ relieves pain without affecting the baby
23) One disadvantage of an epidural is ___________.
A ____ speeds up labor making birth happen faster
B ____ dialates the cervix more than normal, making birth more painful.
C ____ it can slow the progress of labor
D ____ it increases the intensity of labor contractions, possibly harming the baby
24) Zygote implants in __________ of uterus
A ____ Fallopian Tube
B ____ Fimbrae
C ____ Endometrium
D ____ Myometrium
25) Form into two layers 1. epiblast which becomes the ________ and the amniotic fluid. 2. hypoblast which is the yolk sack.
A ____ Amniotic sack
B ____ embryo
26) The ___________ forms. Marks the axis of the embryo. Embryonic cells fold over at ___________ to form an embryonic disk.
A ____ Embryonic axis
B ____ Blastocele
C ____ Primative Streak
D ____ Central cleft
27) The _______ system is one of the 1st systems to develop.
A ____ Muscular
B ____ Digestive
C ____ Circulatory
D ____ Nervous
28) Blood cells have already developed. Cardiac muscles __________
A ____ form into 2 chambers
B ____ start to contract
C ____ are not yet present
29) In the first trimester, the ___________ form(s) the largest structure in the embryo.
A ____ Heart and Lungs
B ____ Skeleton
C ____ Liver
D ____ Brain and Spinal cord
30) The heart separates into 4 chambers and the , __________ which is the master gland for all hormones and other glands, begins to form.
A ____ pituitary gland
B ____ Thyroid Gland
C ____ Adrenal gland
31) The sex of the embryo will be recognizable because of the formation of the ____________.
A ____ gonads
B ____ Scrotum
C ____ Penis
D ____ Uterus
32) Kidneys begin to __________ for the first time.
A ____ separate from one into two organs
B ____ migrate from the outside to the inside of the body
C ____ appear on an ultrasound
D ____ produce urine
33) The brain can __________ and the primary teeth are at cap stage
A ____ Hear
B ____ get startled by sudden noises
C ____ wake and sleep
D ____ move muscles
34) An disorder that could occur is __________ where the egg implants in the fallopian tube and triess to develop there.
A ____ ectopic pregnancy
B ____ Rh incompatability
C ____ Placenta previa
D ____ breech birth
35) The egg is released from the ________ and enters the _________ where it is fertilized by a sperm.
A ____ fimbrae / corpus luteum
B ____ ovary / uterus
C ____ ovary / fallopian tube
36) After about _____, the egg makes it to the uterus and implants on the uterine wall.
A ____ 2 days
B ____ 12 hours
C ____ 4 days
D ____ 6 hours
37)
____________ in the mother normally supplies the fetus with nutrients.
A ____ Larger lungs
B ____ Increased blood supply
C ____ Pica
D ____ increased kidney function
38) The uterus physically _______ so its not pressing on your bladder.
A ____ becomes more narrow
B ____ shifts upward
C ____ enlarges
D ____ gets smaller
39) The hormone ____________ relaxes the stomach and intestines, which leads to excess acids not being pushed out of the digestive tract - causes morning sickness.
A ____ oxytocin
B ____ progesterone
C ____ estrogen
40) Sense of _______ becomes sensitive, things that used to be acceptable may now bother the mother.
A ____ touch
B ____ hearing
C ____ smell
D ____ sight
41) ____________ tend to swell due to highter levels of progesteronen and estrogen, which helps cervix stay closed but can cause allergic type symptoms.
A ____ capillaries
B ____ Lungs
C ____ Mucus membranes
42) _________ has increased which may make the mother feel warmer.
A ____ Heartrate
B ____ Appetitie
C ____ Blood volume
D ____ Lung capacity
43)
A disorder called __________ can cause strange cravings are: metal, coins, ash, coal, clay, soil, feces, chalk, paper, soap, kerosene, gum, etc. Usually caused by an iron deficiency
A ____ Paba
B ____ Pata
C ____ Pica
D ____
44) For boys, the testes are beginning to ________.
A ____ separate
B ____ enlarge
C ____ form
D ____ descend
45) In girls, the uterus is in place ___________.
A ____ and the ovaries make a lifetime of eggs.
B ____ but the ovaries won't produce eggs until the 3rd trimester.
C ____ but the ovaries have not developed yet.
D ____ but is not connected to the ovaries by fallopian tubes.
46) The fetus' lungs are beginning to produce surfactant- which____________________
A ____ stimulates faster lung growth
B ____ prevents lungs from collapsing after birth
C ____ prevents amniotic fluid from entering the lungs while in uterus
47) _________ starts making fetal blood cells
A ____ The umbilical cord
B ____ The fetuses bone marrow
C ____ The mothers blood cells
48) The developing fetus can now _________________.
A ____ hear the mothers heartbeat
B ____ survive outside the womb
C ____ see the light through the abdomen
49) Baby now has phases of ___________.
A ____ audible heartbeats between periods where the heart stops.
B ____ growth between periods of no growth
C ____ sleeping between breif periods of waking
50) _________ is when the placenta grows in the lowest part of the uterus and covers all or part of the opening to cervix.
A ____ Incompetent cervix
B ____ Ectopic pregnancy
C ____ Placenta Previa
51) Begins in the______ week and ends in the _______ week of pregnancy. (range varies)
A ____ 28th - 36th
B ____ 11th / 16th
C ____ 10th / 27th
D ____ 17 / 35th
52) The baby's heartbeat becomes audible using a specific type of ____________.
A ____ ultrasound.
B ____ CAT scan
C ____ X-ray
D ____ MRI
53) The fetus' skin is protected with a greasy, cheese-like coating called ______________.
A ____ mycomium
B ____ vibrio cholera
C ____ fetal fontainellus
D ____ vernix caseosa
54) Tissue that will become ___________ is also developing around the fetus' head and within the arms and legs
A ____ skin
B ____ hair
C ____ muscle
D ____ bone
55) The fetus' ______ have begun to face forward and slowly move.
A ____ fingers / toes
B ____ eyes
C ____ lips
56) ________ begins to develop under the fetus' skin to provide energy and help keep the fetus warm after birth.
A ____ vernix
B ____ body hair
C ____ collagen
D ____ Fat storages
57) The mother no longer experiences frequent ______.
A ____ weight gain
B ____ fetal movements
C ____ stretch marks
D ____ morning sickness
58) The mother can start to feel the first _________.
A ____ morning sickness
B ____ fetal movements
C ____ loss of weight
59) The mother may start to have _________ in the areas of the belly, butt, thighs, hips and breast
A ____ stretch marks
B ____ bruising
C ____ unusual sensitivity to temperature
60) During the second Trimester the pregnant woman starts to __________.
A ____ have Braxton Hicks contractions
B ____ have the highest risk of miscarriage
C ____ increase in weight
D ____ experience morning sickness
61) The mother begins to ______________________.
A ____ notice smells more strongly
B ____ feel the kicks, twists and turns of the baby
C ____ lose weight
D ____ hear the babies heartbeat in a quiet room
62) ___________ are being transferred from the mother's blood to the baby.
A ____ Immunities
B ____ amniotic fluids
C ____ Blood cells
63) The risk of ___________ is much less common in the second trimester
A ____ Miscarriage
B ____ Preeclampsia
C ____ Placenta previa
D ____ Placental abruption
64) Symptoms of _________ include high BP,sudden weight gain, swelling
A ____ Preeclampsia:
B ____ Placenta previa
C ____ Miscarriage
D ____ Placental abruption
65) A _______________ is when the placenta pulls away from uterus. Cuts off nourishment. Endangers baby.
A ____ Placenta previa
B ____ placental abruption:
C ____ Miscarriage
D ____ Preeclampsia
66) Incompetent cervix is when the _____________ before the baby is ready to be born.
A ____ placenta pulls away from the uterine wall
B ____ cervix begins to open
C ____ placenta blocks the opening to the cervix
67) Treatment for ______________ includes BP medication and bed rest.
A ____ Preeclampsia
B ____ Miscarriage
C ____ Placental abruption
D ____ Placenta previa
68) 3rd Trimester is the time period from __________ weeks.
A ____ 14 to 30
B ____ 36 - 40
C ____ 24 to 40
D ____ 10 to 24
69) The babys ________ is (are) fully developed, but still flexible.
A ____ bones
B ____ brain
C ____ skin
D ____ lungs
70) The most rapid _________ growth occurs in the middle of this trimester.
A ____ hair
B ____ brain
C ____ reproductive organ
D ____ muscle and bone
71) Near the end of the trimester, the babys internal organs are complex and developed enough to ________________
A ____ be seen on ultrasound
B ____ function outside the uterus
C ____ be repaired surgically
D ____ be felt through the mothers abdomen
72) By Week 40, the baby is "________" and ready to be delivered.
A ____ "embryionically fertile"
B ____ "full term"
C ____ "metabolicly manageable"
D ____ "Encephalic"
73) by the end of the 3rd trimester, testes of male fetuses are ___________.
A ____ still inside the pelvic cavity.
B ____ still not formed
C ____ fully descended into the scrotum
D ____ fused into 1 gonad which will separate after birth
74) Fetus begins __________ immune system.
A ____ to use it's mothers immune system
B ____ to develop its own
C ____ to no longer require an
75) In the middle of the trimester, the baby is __________ breathing.
A ____ no longer practicing
B ____ able to obtain oxygen with its own
C ____ starting to practice
D ____ still unable to attempt
76) The babys pupils _______________.
A ____ are present but cannot detect light.
B ____ still have not formed yet.
C ____ can see right through the uterus and watch TV.
D ____ can now constrict, dilate and detect light.
77) _______________ is a serious medical condition in which the placenta partially or completely peels away from the uterine wall, which can deprive the baby of oxygen and nutrients.
A ____ Placenta previa
B ____ Placenta Abruption
C ____ Preeclampsia:
D ____ Rh incompatability
78) ___________ is a complication where the antibodies of the mother can cross the placenta and harm the baby.
A ____ Rh Imcombatibility
B ____ Preeclampsia:
C ____ Placenta previa
D ____ Placenta Abruption
79) ___________ is a disorder where the mother has high blood pressure and protein in her urine, which can lead to premature birth.
A ____ Rh incompatability
B ____ Ectopic Pregnancy
C ____ Preeclampsia
D ____ Placenta previa
80) The _________ of the baby can finally be determined during the 3rd trimester.
A ____ size
B ____ Neural tube disorders
C ____ Blood type
D ____ Gender